MedAcademy QSM/QCS

Question 1 / 131

QCS · single choice

In the doctor-patient encounter, non-verbal communication mainly includes:

A The strict content of the words spoken B Posture, facial expression and gaze C Medication prescription D The written report

Question 2 / 131

QCS · single choice

Active listening to the patient is mainly characterized by:

A Frequent interruption to save time B Patient-centered attention with reformulation C The immediate judgment of the remarks D Exclusive note-taking without looking

Question 3 / 131

QCS · single choice

A particular difficulty of the psychiatric interview is:

A The total absence of relational issues B Management of transference and patient anxiety C The impossibility of establishing a diagnosis D Total standardization of questions

Question 4 / 131

QCS · single choice

Stress is defined as:

A A chronic psychiatric illness B A non-specific response from the body to any request for adaptation C An exclusively imaginary disorder D A state that is always pathological

Question 5 / 131

QCS · single choice

Personality can be defined as:

A The transitory set of moods of the moment B The lasting and structured organization of an individual's psychological traits C A strict synonym for intelligence D A mental disorder

Question 6 / 131

QCS · single choice

The placebo effect in prescribing psychology illustrates:

A The absence of influence of the doctor-patient relationship B The psychological role of the act of prescribing C A therapeutic fraud D An absolute contraindication

Question 7 / 131

QCS · single choice

The affective-emotional component of pain corresponds to:

A The location and physical intensity of the stimulus B The unpleasant experience and suffering associated with pain C Peripheral nerve transmission D The reflex motor response

Question 8 / 131

QCS · single choice

The mental status examination in psychiatry includes:

A Blood pressure measurement only B Assessment of mood, thinking and perceptions C Only a biological assessment D Exclusively brain imaging

Question 9 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Regarding the announcement of a serious illness, which propositions are accurate?

A It must be done in a calm and suitable place. B Information must be progressive and adapted to the patient C You always have to say everything at once D Support and subsequent availability are necessary

Question 10 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Among the characteristics of psychosomatic disorders:

A Presence of real organic lesions or dysfunctions B Promoting role of psychological factors and stress C Total absence of somatic complaints D Possibility of cardiovascular or digestive damage

Question 11 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

What psychological factors can modulate pain perception?

A Anxiety and fear B The emotional context and the meaning given to pain C The size of the consultation room D Attention and previous experiences

Question 12 / 131

Open question

List the essential principles of a good announcement of a serious illness.

Question 13 / 131

Open question

What are the objectives of communication with the patient and his family?

Question 14 / 131

QCS · single choice

A symptom is defined as:

A An objective sign noted by the doctor B A subjective manifestation felt and reported by the patient C The result of an additional examination D A grouping of signs

Question 15 / 131

QCS · single choice

A syndrome corresponds to:

A A single isolated symptom B A set of signs and symptoms occurring together C A disease with a single known etiology D A paraclinical examination

Question 16 / 131

QCS · single choice

The times of the clinical examination classically take place in the order:

A Palpation, inspection, percussion, auscultation B Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation C Auscultation, percussion, palpation, inspection D Percussion, auscultation, inspection, palpation

Question 17 / 131

QCS · single choice

Hypothetico-deductive reasoning in clinical practice consists of:

A Prescribe all possible tests immediately B Formulate hypotheses then confirm or refute them with targeted data C Make the diagnosis without questioning D Rely on imagery alone

Question 18 / 131

QCS · single choice

Fever in adults is usually defined by a core temperature greater than:

A 37.0°C B 37.2°C in the morning / 37.8°C in the evening (threshold ≈ 38°C) C 36.5°C D 35.5°C

Question 19 / 131

QCS · single choice

Weight loss is considered significant when it exceeds approximately:

A 1% of weight in 6 months B 5% of body weight in 6 months C 0.5% of weight in 1 year D 30% of weight in 1 month

Question 20 / 131

QCS · single choice

A persistent skin fold and orthostatic hypotension mainly suggest:

A Overall hyperhydration B Extracellular dehydration C Hydrosodium retention D Generalized edema

Question 21 / 131

QCS · single choice

A generalized, white, soft and painless swelling edema suggests:

A Local inflammatory edema B Edema due to salt and water retention C Subcutaneous emphysema D A hematoma

Question 22 / 131

QCS · single choice

The main role of complementary examinations in the clinical process is to:

A Replace questioning and physical examination B Confirm, refute or clarify clinical hypotheses C Be prescribed systematically and exhaustively D Establish the diagnosis alone without a clinic

Question 23 / 131

QCS · single choice

Anterior thoracic landmarks include:

A The midclavicular line B The cutaneous Langer line C The single epigastric line D The anterior scapular line

Question 24 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Medical observation usually includes:

A The interrogation (history) B Physical examination C Diagnostic hypotheses and actions to take D Prescription prescription only

Question 25 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Regarding fever, which statements are correct?

A It results from a shift in the hypothalamic set point B Shivering often accompanies thermal ascent C It is always of infectious origin D Sweating often accompanies defervescence

Question 26 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Among the basic primary lesions of the skin:

A The macule B The papule C The scar D The gallbladder

Question 27 / 131

Open question

What are the main elements collected during the medical history (history)?

Question 28 / 131

Open question

Define and differentiate: sign, symptom and syndrome.

Question 29 / 131

QCS · single choice

Among the major functional cardiac signs, we note:

A Isolated chronic productive cough B Exertional dyspnea, chest pain and palpitations C Dysphonia D Diarrhea

Question 30 / 131

QCS · single choice

The NYHA classification assesses:

A The severity of a heart murmur B The functional impact of exertional dyspnea C The coronary caliber D Heart rate on the ECG

Question 31 / 131

QCS · single choice

The pain of typical angina is classically:

A Retrosternal, constrictive, radiating to the left arm and jaw B Latero-thoracic stabbing increased on inspiration C Permanent pulsatile epigastric D Punctiform reproducible on palpation

Question 32 / 131

QCS · single choice

Syncope is defined by:

A Brief loss of consciousness with complete spontaneous recovery B A permanent motor deficit C Prolonged confusion without loss of consciousness D Isolated chest pain

Question 33 / 131

QCS · single choice

The first heart sound (B1) corresponds to:

A Closure of the aortic and pulmonary sigmoid valves B Closure of the atrioventricular valves (mitral and tricuspid) C Opening of the mitral valve D Rapid ventricular filling

Question 34 / 131

QCS · single choice

A systolic murmur at the aortic focus radiating to the carotids first suggests:

A Aortic narrowing B Isolated mitral regurgitation C Aortic insufficiency D Mitral stenosis

Question 35 / 131

QCS · single choice

An abolished femoral pulse with abolition of the distal pulses of the lower limb suggests:

A Venous insufficiency B Arteriopathy/arterial obstruction of the limb C Lymphatic edema D A simple normal variation

Question 36 / 131

QCS · single choice

According to the usual thresholds, hypertension in adults in the office is defined by blood pressure ≥:

A 120/80 mmHg B 140/90 mmHg C 160/100 mmHg mandatory D 100/60 mmHg

Question 37 / 131

QCS · single choice

On the normal ECG, the P wave corresponds to:

A Atrial depolarization B Ventricular depolarization C Ventricular repolarization D Isolated nodal conduction

Question 38 / 131

QCS · single choice

Persistent ST segment elevation on the ECG indicates:

A An ST+ SCA (infarction with elevation) B Chronic constrictive pericarditis C A benign isolated branch block D Auricular enlargement

Question 39 / 131

QCS · single choice

The pain of acute pericarditis is typically:

A Relieved by supine position B Increased on inspiration and relieved by leaning forward C Always painless D Constrictive and calmed by effort

Question 40 / 131

QCS · single choice

Mitral stenosis is classically reflected on auscultation by:

A An aortic diastolic murmur B A diastolic roll with burst of B1 at the tip C An aortic ejection systolic murmur D A pericardial friction

Question 41 / 131

QCS · single choice

Acute limb ischemia is classically characterized by 'P' signs including:

A Pain, pallor, absence of pulse, coldness, paresthesias, paralysis B Heat, redness and inflammatory edema C Jumping pulse and warm skin D Painful varicose veins and edema

Question 42 / 131

QCS · single choice

Deep vein thrombosis of the lower limb typically manifests itself by:

A A cold, pale, pulseless limb B A painful, hot, enlarged calf with Homans sign C Intermittent arterial claudication D An absence of any possible local sign excluded

Question 43 / 131

QCS · single choice

The clinical signs of right heart failure mainly include:

A Orthopnea and bilateral crackles B Jugular turgor, hepatomegaly and lower limb edema C Isolated aortic systolic murmur D Skin pallor with loss of pulse

Question 44 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

What chest pain should suggest a life-threatening emergency?

A Acute coronary syndrome B Aortic dissection C Benign reproducible parietal pain D Pulmonary embolism

Question 45 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Among the added noises that can be heard during cardiac auscultation:

A The gallop (B3, B4) B The mitral opening click C The normal gallbladder murmur D Pericardial friction

Question 46 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Regarding the ECG, which correspondences are exact?

A QRS complex = ventricular depolarization B T wave = ventricular repolarization C PR space = atrioventricular conduction D P wave = ventricular repolarization

Question 47 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Regarding myocardial infarction, which statements are correct?

A Prolonged chest pain not relieved by rest B Troponin elevation C Rest always relieves pain within minutes D Possibility of ST elevation on the ECG

Question 48 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Regarding obliterating arteriopathy of the lower limbs (PAAD), which propositions are correct?

A Intermittent claudication is a warning sign B Decrease or abolition of distal pulses C Varicose veins are the pathognomonic sign D Measuring the systolic pressure index (SPI) is useful

Question 49 / 131

Open question

Name the four foci of cardiac auscultation and their location.

Question 50 / 131

Open question

Mention the main explorations used in cardiology and their interest.

Question 51 / 131

QCS · single choice

Among the major respiratory functional signs, we note:

A Palpitations and lipothymia B Dyspnea, cough, expectoration and hemoptysis C Lower limb edema D Jugular turgor

Question 52 / 131

QCS · single choice

Dyspnea is defined as:

A Chest pain on exercise B An abnormal and painful perception of breathing (shortness of breath) C A dry nighttime cough D A spit of blood

Question 53 / 131

QCS · single choice

Hemoptysis corresponds to:

A A discharge of airy red blood during coughing B Vomiting blackish blood C A nosebleed D Greenish purulent sputum

Question 54 / 131

QCS · single choice

Vomiting corresponds to:

A A sudden and abundant discharge of pus or fluid through the airways B Loss of voice due to laryngeal damage C A spit streaked with blood D Difficulty swallowing

Question 55 / 131

QCS · single choice

The pulmonary physical examination follows the order:

A Auscultation, percussion, palpation, inspection B Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation C Percussion, inspection, auscultation, palpation D Palpation, auscultation, inspection, percussion

Question 56 / 131

QCS · single choice

Dullness on percussion of a pulmonary base most often evokes:

A A pneumothorax B Pleural fluid effusion C Distended emphysema D Air distension

Question 57 / 131

QCS · single choice

Pleural fluid effusion syndrome classically associates:

A Dullness, abolition of gallbladder murmur and vocal vibrations B Tympanism and increased vocal vibrations C Diffuse crackles with normal sound D Isolated generalized wheezing rales

Question 58 / 131

QCS · single choice

Systemic pulmonary condensation syndrome (pneumonia) typically includes:

A Dullness, increased vocal vibrations and crackling rattles B Hypersonority and abolition of vocal vibrations C Auscultatory silence with eardrum D Expiratory wheezing isolated

Question 59 / 131

QCS · single choice

A superior cava syndrome, indicative of a mediastinal syndrome, results in:

A Pilgrim edema, jugular turgor and thoracic collateral circulation B Isolated lower limb edema C Dullness of an isolated lung base D Digital clubbing isolated

Question 60 / 131

QCS · single choice

In the pulmonological examination, smoking is quantified in:

A Grams per day B Pack-years C Liters per minute D Milliliters per kilo

Question 61 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Regarding expectoration, which statements are correct?

A Purulent sputum suggests bronchopulmonary infection B Pinkish foamy sputum suggests OAP C Any sputum is pathognomonic of cancer D Sputum may be mucous, purulent or hemoptoic

Question 62 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Among the pathological adventitious sounds auscultated in pulmonology:

A The crackling rattles B The sibilants C The normal gallbladder murmur D The snoring rattles

Question 63 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Bronchial syndrome manifests itself in particular by:

A Cough and expectoration B Bronchial rales (snoring, wheezing) C Complete and definitive abolition of vocal vibrations D Possible obstruction of air flow

Question 64 / 131

Open question

List the main explorations used in pulmonology.

Question 65 / 131

Open question

Describe the semiological tripod of large fluid pleural effusion.

Question 66 / 131

QCS · single choice

Standard radiography is based on the use of:

A Ultrasound B X-rays (ionizing radiation) C Magnetic field D Visible light

Question 67 / 131

QCS · single choice

On a standard x-ray, the bone appears:

A Black (radio-transparent) B White (radiopaque) C Uniform gray D Unseen

Question 68 / 131

QCS · single choice

Ultrasound uses as a physical principle:

A X-rays B Ultrasound reflected by tissues C An intense magnetic field D Gamma rays

Question 69 / 131

QCS · single choice

Which of the following imaging modalities does NOT use ionizing radiation?

A Standard radiography B Computed tomography (scanner) C MRI D Fluoroscopy

Question 70 / 131

QCS · single choice

Computed tomography (CT/CT) provides:

A Cross-sectional images from X-rays B A functional isotopic image C An ultrasound image only D An image without any reconstruction

Question 71 / 131

QCS · single choice

In the x-ray tube, x-rays are produced by:

A Nuclear fusion target B Braking of accelerated electrons on the anode (target) C Radioactive decay of the filament D Ultrasound reflection

Question 72 / 131

QCS · single choice

The aim of radiological semiology is to:

A Describe and interpret normal and pathological images B Permanently replace the clinical examination C Establishing vital prognosis without diagnosis D Measure only the radiation dose

Question 73 / 131

QCS · single choice

Ultrasound is particularly suitable for exploring:

A Normal aerated lung parenchyma B Fluid structures and soft tissues C From the deep bony cortex D Digestive air

Question 74 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Regarding the basic radiological densities on an x-ray, which are accurate?

A Air is the most radiolucent density (black) B Metal is the most radiopaque density (white) C Water and soft tissue are water density (gray) D Fat is more opaque than bone

Question 75 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Concerning contrast products, which propositions are correct?

A Iodized products are used in scanning B Gadolinium is used in MRI C They can cause allergic reactions D They are still free of renal risk

Question 76 / 131

Open question

List, in increasing order of opacity, the basic radiological densities of a standard radiograph.

Question 77 / 131

Open question

Briefly compare the physical principle of x-ray, ultrasound and MRI.

Question 78 / 131

QCS · single choice

Good quality standard frontal chest radiography is performed:

A In forced expiration, lying down B In deep inspiration, standing, facing forward (postero-anterior incidence) C Systematic lateral decubitus D Without any quality criteria

Question 79 / 131

QCS · single choice

The silhouette sign makes it possible to locate an opacity because:

A Two contiguous structures of the same density erase their common limit B The air always erases the bone contours C Metal disappears on x-ray D Fat increases the sharpness of vascular edges

Question 80 / 131

QCS · single choice

Radiological alveolar syndrome is typically characterized by:

A Blurred opacities confluent with air bronchogram B Isolated Kerley lines without opacity C Hyperclarity with pleural line D Filling of costo-diaphragmatic cul-de-sacs with liquid only

Question 81 / 131

QCS · single choice

A fluid pleural effusion of moderate abundance is reflected on the x-ray by:

A A sloping opacity filling the costo-diaphragmatic cul-de-sac with concave border line B Peripheral avascular hyperlucency C A central air bronchogram D Bilateral diffuse micronodules

Question 82 / 131

QCS · single choice

The cardiothoracic index (CTI) on a frontal x-ray is pathological (cardiomegaly) when it is greater than:

A 0,30 B 0,50 C 0.75 required D 0,90

Question 83 / 131

QCS · single choice

The radiological air bronchogram corresponds to:

A Aerial bronchi visible within an alveolar opacity B Peripheral pleural hyperlucency C Bronchial calcifications D Thickening of the interlobular septa

Question 84 / 131

QCS · single choice

Which examination remains the first-line imaging of the respiratory system?

A Chest MRI B Standard chest x-ray C Systematic scintigraphy D Bronchial arteriography

Question 85 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

What are the quality criteria for a frontal chest x-ray?

A Shot taken in deep inspiration B Symmetry (spinous centered between the clavicles) C Visualization of diaphragmatic domes D Patient in maximum expiration

Question 86 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Regarding pulmonary atelectasis on radiography, which propositions are correct?

A Systematized retractable opacity B Attraction of neighboring structures (mediastinum, dome) C Hyperlucency with distension of the hemithorax D Reduction in volume of the affected area

Question 87 / 131

Open question

Name the major thoracic radiological syndromes.

Question 88 / 131

QCS · single choice

The intracellular sector represents approximately, in adults, what proportion of total water?

A About 1/3 B About 2/3 C The whole D Less than 10%

Question 89 / 131

QCS · single choice

The main determinant of plasma osmolarity is:

A Potassium B Sodium C Calcium D Bicarbonate

Question 90 / 131

QCS · single choice

Hyponatremia most often reflects a disorder:

A Potassium balance B Water balance (relative excess water) C Calcium metabolism D Pure acid-base balance

Question 91 / 131

QCS · single choice

Severe hyperkalemia mainly exposes you to the risk of:

A Serious heart rhythm disturbances B Isolated high blood pressure C Pure metabolic alkalosis D From fever

Question 92 / 131

QCS · single choice

The main center of thermoregulation is located:

A In the cerebellum B In the hypothalamus C In the medulla oblongata only D In the frontal cortex

Question 93 / 131

QCS · single choice

Protein-energy malnutrition results in particular in:

A Hypoalbuminemia and muscle wasting B Rapid weight gain C Muscular hypertrophy D Systematic polycythemia

Question 94 / 131

QCS · single choice

Extracellular hyperhydration results clinically in:

A Edema and weight gain B A skin fold and intense thirst C Hypotension due to hypovolemia D Isolated cellular dehydration

Question 95 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Extracellular dehydration is characterized by:

A Weight loss B A skin fold and hypotension C Iso-osmotic loss of water and sodium D Generalized edema

Question 96 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Concerning the pathophysiology of fever, which propositions are correct?

A Endogenous pyrogens (cytokines) elevate the hypothalamic set point B Prostaglandins (PGE2) are involved in this mechanism C Fever corresponds to a failure of thermoregulation like heatstroke D Shivering increases thermogenesis

Question 97 / 131

Open question

Describe the distribution of total body water between its different compartments.

Question 98 / 131

Open question

Contrast intracellular dehydration and extracellular dehydration.

Question 99 / 131

QCS · single choice

Cardiac output is the product of:

A Blood pressure by resistance B Heart rate by stroke volume C Preload by afterload D Contractility by respiratory frequency

Question 100 / 131

QCS · single choice

A compensatory mechanism for chronic heart failure is:

A Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system B Decreased sympathetic tone C Increased sodium diuresis D Generalized peripheral vasodilation

Question 101 / 131

QCS · single choice

The state of shock is defined physiologically by:

A A simple isolated drop in pressure without consequences B Acute circulatory failure with tissue hypoperfusion C Malignant high blood pressure D Isolated bradycardia

Question 102 / 131

QCS · single choice

Hypovolemic shock mainly results from:

A Heart pump failure B A decrease in circulating blood volume C Vasodilation by release of mediators D Mediastinal compression

Question 103 / 131

QCS · single choice

Cardiogenic shock is characterized hemodynamically by:

A Collapsed cardiac output with elevated filling pressures B High cardiac output with low resistance C Pure hypovolemia D Peripheral resistors collapsed in isolation

Question 104 / 131

QCS · single choice

Blood pressure mainly depends on the product:

A Cardiac output × peripheral vascular resistance B Tidal volume × respiratory rate C Preload × vital capacity D Heart rate × osmolarity

Question 105 / 131

QCS · single choice

Virchow's triad, which causes venous thrombosis, includes:

A Venous stasis, endothelial injury and hypercoagulability B Hypertension, hyperglycemia and hyperlipidemia C Hypoxia, acidosis and fever D Anemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia

Question 106 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

What are the determinants of stroke volume?

A Preload B Afterload C Contractility (inotropism) D Lung vital capacity

Question 107 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Among the main types of shock, we distinguish:

A Hypovolemic shock B Cardiogenic shock C Distributive shock (septic, anaphylactic) D Obstructive bronchial respiratory shock

Question 108 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Concerning distributive shock (septic, anaphylactic), which propositions are correct?

A It is accompanied by vasodilation and a fall in peripheral resistance B There is a capillary leak C Cardiac output is typically collapsed from the start as in cardiogenic D Anaphylactic shock is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction

Question 109 / 131

Open question

List the main compensatory mechanisms involved in chronic heart failure.

Question 110 / 131

Open question

Classify shock states according to their mechanism and give an example for each.

Question 111 / 131

QCS · single choice

Hematosis refers to:

A Blood clotting B Alveolar-capillary gas exchanges (oxygenation and elimination of CO2) C Production of red blood cells D Renal filtration

Question 112 / 131

QCS · single choice

Hypoxemia corresponds to:

A A decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood B An increase in blood CO2 only C Excess tissue oxygen D An isolated drop in pH

Question 113 / 131

QCS · single choice

Acute respiratory failure is defined biologically by:

A Hypoxemia (± hypercapnia) on arterial blood gases B Isolated hyperglycemia C Isolated hyperkalemia D An increase in troponins

Question 114 / 131

QCS · single choice

Acute cardiogenic lung edema results from:

A An increase in pulmonary capillary pressure B Pure bronchial vasoconstriction C A decrease in alveolar permeability D Severe hypovolemia

Question 115 / 131

QCS · single choice

The asthma attack corresponds physiopathologically to:

A A reversible obstructive ventilatory disorder with bronchial inflammation B Pleural fluid effusion C Infectious alveolar condensation D Irreversible pulmonary fibrosis

Question 116 / 131

QCS · single choice

Hypercapnia mainly reflects:

A Alveolar hypoventilation B Hyperventilation C Polycythemia D A pure metabolic alkalosis

Question 117 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Among the mechanisms of hypoxemia, we note:

A The shunt effect (ventilation/perfusion mismatch) B Alveolar hypoventilation C Alveolo-capillary diffusion disorder D Isolated increase in cardiac output

Question 118 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Regarding the types of acute respiratory failure, which propositions are correct?

A Hypoxemic AKI (type I) combines hypoxemia without marked hypercapnia B Hypercapnic AKI (type II) combines hypoxemia and hypercapnia C Alveolar hypoventilation leads to hypercapnia D The IRA is still without gaseous repercussions

Question 119 / 131

Open question

List the main pathophysiological mechanisms of hypoxemia.

Question 120 / 131

Open question

Contrast cardiogenic OAP and lesional OAP in terms of their mechanism.

Question 121 / 131

QCS · single choice

The stages of biochemical analysis are classically divided into phases:

A Pre-analytical, analytical and post-analytical B Clinical and radiological only C Random and definitive D Manual exclusively

Question 122 / 131

QCS · single choice

The notion of reference values (usual values) in biochemistry corresponds to:

A The range of results observed in a population of healthy subjects B The maximum value tolerated by a device C The therapeutic threshold of a drug D The technical detection limit

Question 123 / 131

QCS · single choice

The standard lipid profile (exploration of a lipid abnormality) usually includes:

A Total cholesterol, HDL, LDL and triglycerides B Blood sugar only C Only transaminases D Troponin only

Question 124 / 131

QCS · single choice

Oxidative stress corresponds to:

A An imbalance between production of free radicals and antioxidant defenses B An isolated excess of antioxidants without effect C Glucose deficiency D An increase in triglycerides

Question 125 / 131

QCS · single choice

The most specific biomarker of myocardial necrosis is:

A Cardiac troponin (Tc) B CRP C Serum creatinine D Amylase

Question 126 / 131

QCS · single choice

The biochemical analysis of pleural fluid makes it possible to distinguish a transudate from an exudate mainly by the dosage:

A Proteins (and LDH) according to Light’s criteria B Capillary blood sugar C Blood hemoglobin D Troponin

Question 127 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

What elements belong to the pre-analytical phase?

A Sampling conditions (fasting, tourniquet) B Transport and storage of the sample C Statistical calculation of reference values D Correct patient identification

Question 128 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Regarding lipoproteins, which propositions are correct?

A LDL cholesterol is atherogenic B HDL-cholesterol is protective (purifying) C Chylomicrons transport triglycerides from food sources D HDL cholesterol is the main atherogenic factor

Question 129 / 131

MCQ · multiple choice

Which of the biomarkers used in cardiology are accurate?

A Troponin for the diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome B BNP/NT-proBNP for heart failure C CK-MB as a marker of myocardial necrosis D Bilirubin as a marker of infarction

Question 130 / 131

Open question

Describe the three main phases of the biochemical analysis process.

Question 131 / 131

Open question

3rd year · Unit 1 · Psychology, general semiology and cardiovascular and respiratory system

In the doctor-patient encounter, non-verbal communication mainly includes:

Active listening to the patient is mainly characterized by:

A particular difficulty of the psychiatric interview is:

Stress is defined as:

Personality can be defined as:

The placebo effect in prescribing psychology illustrates:

The affective-emotional component of pain corresponds to:

The mental status examination in psychiatry includes:

Regarding the announcement of a serious illness, which propositions are accurate?

Among the characteristics of psychosomatic disorders:

What psychological factors can modulate pain perception?

List the essential principles of a good announcement of a serious illness.

What are the objectives of communication with the patient and his family?

A symptom is defined as:

A syndrome corresponds to:

The times of the clinical examination classically take place in the order:

Hypothetico-deductive reasoning in clinical practice consists of:

Fever in adults is usually defined by a core temperature greater than:

Weight loss is considered significant when it exceeds approximately:

A persistent skin fold and orthostatic hypotension mainly suggest:

A generalized, white, soft and painless swelling edema suggests:

The main role of complementary examinations in the clinical process is to:

Anterior thoracic landmarks include:

Medical observation usually includes:

Regarding fever, which statements are correct?

Among the basic primary lesions of the skin:

What are the main elements collected during the medical history (history)?

Define and differentiate: sign, symptom and syndrome.

Among the major functional cardiac signs, we note:

The NYHA classification assesses:

The pain of typical angina is classically:

Syncope is defined by:

The first heart sound (B1) corresponds to:

A systolic murmur at the aortic focus radiating to the carotids first suggests:

An abolished femoral pulse with abolition of the distal pulses of the lower limb suggests:

According to the usual thresholds, hypertension in adults in the office is defined by blood pressure ≥:

On the normal ECG, the P wave corresponds to:

Persistent ST segment elevation on the ECG indicates:

The pain of acute pericarditis is typically:

Mitral stenosis is classically reflected on auscultation by:

Acute limb ischemia is classically characterized by 'P' signs including:

Deep vein thrombosis of the lower limb typically manifests itself by:

The clinical signs of right heart failure mainly include:

What chest pain should suggest a life-threatening emergency?

Among the added noises that can be heard during cardiac auscultation:

Regarding the ECG, which correspondences are exact?

Regarding myocardial infarction, which statements are correct?

Regarding obliterating arteriopathy of the lower limbs (PAAD), which propositions are correct?

Name the four foci of cardiac auscultation and their location.

Mention the main explorations used in cardiology and their interest.

Among the major respiratory functional signs, we note:

Dyspnea is defined as:

Hemoptysis corresponds to:

Vomiting corresponds to:

The pulmonary physical examination follows the order:

Dullness on percussion of a pulmonary base most often evokes:

Pleural fluid effusion syndrome classically associates:

Systemic pulmonary condensation syndrome (pneumonia) typically includes:

A superior cava syndrome, indicative of a mediastinal syndrome, results in:

In the pulmonological examination, smoking is quantified in:

Regarding expectoration, which statements are correct?

Among the pathological adventitious sounds auscultated in pulmonology:

Bronchial syndrome manifests itself in particular by:

List the main explorations used in pulmonology.

Describe the semiological tripod of large fluid pleural effusion.

Standard radiography is based on the use of:

On a standard x-ray, the bone appears:

Ultrasound uses as a physical principle:

Which of the following imaging modalities does NOT use ionizing radiation?

Computed tomography (CT/CT) provides:

In the x-ray tube, x-rays are produced by:

The aim of radiological semiology is to:

Ultrasound is particularly suitable for exploring:

Regarding the basic radiological densities on an x-ray, which are accurate?

Concerning contrast products, which propositions are correct?

List, in increasing order of opacity, the basic radiological densities of a standard radiograph.

Briefly compare the physical principle of x-ray, ultrasound and MRI.

Good quality standard frontal chest radiography is performed:

The silhouette sign makes it possible to locate an opacity because: