Question 1 / 122
Generalities, basic lesions and diagnostic approach
QCS · single choice
Which basic lesion corresponds to a solid, circumscribed skin elevation, without visible fluid content?
Explanation
The papule is a solid and raised lesion, unlike the vesicle which contains fluid and secondary lesions such as scale or crust.
Question 2 / 122
QCS · single choice
Faced with a visible and large cutaneous fluid collection, which semiological term is most appropriate?
Explanation
The bubble is a fluid collection that is larger than a vesicle. The pustule contains purulent fluid, the nodule is solid and the macule is flat.
Question 3 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which description best describes skin erosion rather than ulceration?
Explanation
Erosion is superficial, while ulceration is deeper and scarring. Lichenification and crusting are other secondary lesions.
Question 4 / 122
QCS · single choice
A pruritic annular plaque with an active scaly border, with centrifugal extension, initially points towards what differential diagnosis?
Explanation
The active annular border and the centrifugal extension suggest dermatophytia. Psoriasis is rather well limited with thick scales, eczema is often less annular and stasis dermatitis mainly affects the legs.
Question 5 / 122
QCS · single choice
What reasoning is the most solid in the face of a dermatosis of uncertain etiology?
Explanation
The dermatological approach begins with a precise semiological description before the diagnostic synthesis.
Question 6 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which situation requires rapid orientation rather than simple semiological surveillance?
Explanation
Fever, mucosal damage and skin pain are warning signals that may indicate serious drug addiction, severe infection or extensive bullous dermatosis.
Question 7 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
Which propositions correspond to primitive elementary lesions?
Explanation
A, B and C are primitive. D is a secondary lesion linked to the drying out of an exudate.
Question 8 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What elements reinforce the initial dermatological analysis when faced with a rash?
Explanation
A, B and C structure the dermatological examination. D has no direct semiological value.
Question 9 / 122
Open question
Mention the essential steps of the clinical analysis when faced with polymorphic dermatosis.
Explanation
Describe the basic primary and secondary lesions, specify the topography, symmetry, extent, evolution, pruritus or pain, look for general and mucosal signs, then construct coherent dermatological differential diagnoses before appropriate referral.
Question 10 / 122
Dermatological therapeutics, topical corticosteroids and local care
QCS · single choice
Which situation illustrates the most consistent use of a topical corticosteroid in academic dermatology?
Explanation
A topical corticosteroid is designed for an identified inflammatory dermatosis, with evaluation of the site, terrain and follow-up.
Question 11 / 122
QCS · single choice
What local adverse effect is classically sought during inappropriate use of topical corticosteroids?
Explanation
Skin atrophy is one of the major local side effects of topical corticosteroids.
Question 12 / 122
QCS · single choice
What is the major diagnostic risk when a mycotic annular plaque is treated like a common inflammatory dermatosis?
Explanation
Local anti-inflammatory treatment can reduce the signs of a yeast infection and make diagnosis more difficult.
Question 13 / 122
QCS · single choice
What general objective of local care is most relevant in chronic xerotic dermatosis?
Explanation
Local treatments can improve the skin barrier and comfort, particularly in dry and inflammatory dermatoses.
Question 14 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which element most improves the safety of chronic dermatological treatment?
Explanation
Education, compliance and monitoring are among the essential principles of dermatological therapies.
Question 15 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What situations can be considered in favor of a topical corticosteroid after appropriate clinical diagnosis?
Explanation
A and B may be part of an anti-inflammatory strategy. C and D refer to infections where etiological treatment must take precedence.
Question 16 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
Which points belong to the general monitoring of local anti-inflammatory treatment?
Explanation
A, B and C are monitoring points. D is false because a recurrence requires a clinical reassessment.
Question 17 / 122
Open question
Summarize the principles to check before using a topical corticosteroid for an inflammatory dermatosis.
Explanation
Confirm the inflammatory direction, eliminate an infection or a suspicious lesion, assess the affected site, the terrain, the severity, the impact, explain the objectives, plan the monitoring of adverse effects and reassess the evolution.
Question 18 / 122
Eczema, atopic dermatitis and contact dermatitis
QCS · single choice
Which clinical picture most suggests an acute eczema flare-up?
Explanation
Acute eczema readily combines erythema, pruritus, blisters and oozing.
Question 19 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which element most points towards atopic dermatitis rather than isolated contact eczema?
Explanation
Atopic dermatitis is constitutional, with xerosis and recurrent flare-ups.
Question 20 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which presentation is most suggestive of allergic contact eczema?
Explanation
Recurrence in a specific area of exposure suggests allergic contact eczema.
Question 21 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which sign favors plaque psoriasis rather than chronic lichenified eczema?
Explanation
The well-defined, thick and scaly plaques in the areas of extension point towards psoriasis.
Question 22 / 122
QCS · single choice
What element should lead to the discussion of dermatophytia rather than nummular eczema?
Explanation
Active border and centrifugal extension are typical of dermatophytia of glabrous skin.
Question 23 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which element most suggests a superinfection of eczema?
Explanation
Yellowish crusts, pain and accentuated inflammation suggest impetiginization or an infectious complication.
Question 24 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What elements are compatible with eczematous dermatosis?
Explanation
A, B and C belong to the eczematous spectrum. D evokes a specific infectious diagnosis.
Question 25 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What diagnoses can mimic or complicate an eczematous outbreak?
Explanation
A and B are dermatological differential diagnoses; This is a possible infectious complication. D is out of dermatological scope.
Question 26 / 122
Open question
Compare the clinical arguments in favor of atopic dermatitis and contact eczema.
Explanation
Atopic dermatitis evokes an atopic terrain, xerosis, recurrent outbreaks and suggestive locations. Contact eczema is based on a relationship with specific exposure, consistent topography and recurrence upon re-exposure. Both can be pruritic, vesicular and then lichenified.
Question 27 / 122
Psoriasis, lichen planus and inflammatory dermatoses
QCS · single choice
Which clinical picture is most reminiscent of typical plaque psoriasis?
Explanation
Plaque psoriasis classically manifests itself as well-defined, scaly plaques on the areas of extension.
Question 28 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which nail element reinforces the hypothesis of psoriasis associated with typical skin plaques?
Explanation
Punctuated depressions and onycholysis can accompany psoriasis.
Question 29 / 122
QCS · single choice
What sign should we look for for joint damage associated with psoriasis?
Explanation
Inflammatory pain and stiffness should suggest psoriatic arthritis.
Question 30 / 122
QCS · single choice
What aspect should be evaluated even when psoriasis lesions are not life-threatening?
Explanation
Psoriasis is chronic and can have a significant functional and psychosocial impact.
Question 31 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which element favors dermatophytia rather than psoriasis?
Explanation
The annular appearance with active edge and centrifugal extension is more suggestive of dermatophytia.
Question 32 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which principle is best suited to extensive or very severe chronic psoriasis?
Explanation
The management of psoriasis depends on the severity, locations, impact and possible comorbidities.
Question 33 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
Which locations or conditions are compatible with psoriasis?
Explanation
A, B and C are classic locations. D rather suggests a scab.
Question 34 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What arguments support psoriasis rather than eczema or dermatophytia?
Explanation
A, B and C support psoriasis. D points towards dermatophytia.
Question 35 / 122
Open question
Describe the clinical elements to look for in plaque psoriasis in order to assess its severity.
Explanation
Look for the extent, visible or functional locations, involvement of the scalp and nails, joint pain, pruritus or pain, psychological and social impact, triggering factors and chronicity of flare-ups.
Question 36 / 122
Acne, pyoderma and bacterial skin infections
QCS · single choice
Which picture is most reminiscent of acne vulgaris rather than isolated bacterial folliculitis?
Explanation
The presence of comedones in seborrheic areas points towards acne.
Question 37 / 122
QCS · single choice
What element points towards infectious folliculitis?
Explanation
Folliculitis corresponds to an infectious inflammation of the follicle, often visible by pustules centered by a hair.
Question 38 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which clinical aspect is most suggestive of impetigo?
Explanation
Impetigo causes crusted superficial lesions, which are classically contagious.
Question 39 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which picture points more towards erysipelas than towards stasis dermatitis?
Explanation
Erysipelas is an acute febrile infection with painful inflammatory plaque.
Question 40 / 122
QCS · single choice
What element makes us fear a severe bacterial skin infection rather than a simple superficial pyoderma?
Explanation
General deterioration, significant pain and rapid extension are infectious warning signals.
Question 41 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which appearance best corresponds to a boil?
Explanation
The boil is a deep infection of the pilosebaceous follicle, causing a painful nodule.
Question 42 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
Which entities belong to the field of bacterial skin infections or pyoderma?
Explanation
A, B and C are bacterial skin infections. D is a chronic inflammatory dermatosis.
Question 43 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What elements require us to reconsider the seriousness of a skin infection?
Explanation
A, B and C are severity or alertness factors. D describes deep non-infectious comedonal acne.
Question 44 / 122
Open question
Explain how to differentiate between inflammatory acne, folliculitis and impetigo on clinical examination.
Explanation
Acne combines comedones and inflammatory lesions in seborrheic areas. Folliculitis causes pustules centered by a follicle. Impetigo is superficial, crusty, often contagious, sometimes on eczema or scratching lesions.
Question 45 / 122
Superficial mycosis and ringworm
QCS · single choice
Which clinical aspect is most suggestive of dermatophytia of glabrous skin?
Explanation
Dermatophytia of glabrous skin often takes on an annular appearance with an active, scaly edge.
Question 46 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which scalp condition is most reminiscent of ringworm rather than alopecia areata?
Explanation
Ringworm combines alopecia, scales and broken hair, unlike smooth alopecia areata.
Question 47 / 122
QCS · single choice
What element points towards a mycotic intertrigo of the folds?
Explanation
Maceration of folds with active border or satellite lesions suggests mucocutaneous mycosis.
Question 48 / 122
QCS · single choice
Faced with chronic nail disease, what element makes it necessary to discuss a mycosis rather than isolated nail psoriasis?
Explanation
Asymmetrical friable thickening with subungual hyperkeratosis suggests onychomycosis.
Question 49 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which element makes nummular eczema less likely and superficial mycosis more likely?
Explanation
An active peripheral border is a strong argument for dermatophytia.
Question 50 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which principle is most appropriate in the face of atypical or recurrent superficial mycosis?
Explanation
The mycological examination as a principle helps to confirm an atypical, recurrent or difficult to diagnose mycosis.
Question 51 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
Which sites can be affected by superficial dermatophytes?
Explanation
A, B and C are classic sites. D does not correspond to the field of superficial dermatophytes.
Question 52 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What elements should suggest a mycosis rather than a non-infectious inflammatory dermatosis?
Explanation
A, B and C point to superficial mycosis. D is more compatible with psoriasis.
Question 53 / 122
Open question
Give the main clinical arguments allowing dermatophytia, eczema and psoriasis to be contrasted with a scaly plaque.
Explanation
Dermatophytia evokes an annular lesion with an active border, centrifugal extension and sometimes contagiousness. Eczema is often very itchy, vesicular or lichenified, less well limited. Psoriasis produces well-defined, thick plaques in areas of extension, with possible involvement of the scalp and nails.
Question 54 / 122
Cutaneous ectoparasitoses: scabies and pediculosis
QCS · single choice
What clinical context most suggests common scabies?
Explanation
Nocturnal and collective itching is a major argument in favor of scabies.
Question 55 / 122
QCS · single choice
What sign points to pediculosis of the scalp?
Explanation
Adherent nits and itching of the scalp suggest pediculosis.
Question 56 / 122
QCS · single choice
What reasoning is most correct in the face of diffuse itchy excoriations?
Explanation
Scratch lesions may mask specific lesions; you have to look for topography, collective context and evocative signs.
Question 57 / 122
QCS · single choice
What principle is essential to avoid recurrences of contagious ectoparasitosis?
Explanation
Ectoparasitoses require reflection on those around them and contagiousness.
Question 58 / 122
QCS · single choice
What element best distinguishes simple hives from scabies?
Explanation
Urticaria gives fleeting edematous papules, while scabies is supported by collective itching and suggestive topography.
Question 59 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What elements support the diagnosis of scabies?
Explanation
A, B and C support scabies. D is more consistent with hives.
Question 60 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What elements belong to the reasoning when faced with pediculosis of the scalp?
Explanation
A, B and C are relevant. D is false because isolated scales have several dermatological causes.
Question 61 / 122
Open question
Summarize the arguments pointing towards ectoparasitosis in the face of diffuse pruritus.
Explanation
Expected arguments: nocturnal or collective pruritus, cases in the entourage, evocative topographies, specific lesions sometimes discreet, excoriations or scratching scabs, context of promiscuity and need to evaluate close contacts.
Question 62 / 122
STIs, syphilis, genital ulcers and urethritis
QCS · single choice
Which picture most suggests primary syphilis in the context of STIs?
Explanation
Syphilitic chancre is classically a mildly painful indurated ulceration, often associated with lymphadenopathy.
Question 63 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which rash should suggest secondary syphilis?
Explanation
Secondary syphilis can cause a diffuse rash with mucocutaneous involvement, particularly on the palms and soles.
Question 64 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which element points more towards a herpetic ulceration than towards a primary syphilis?
Explanation
Grouped, painful vesiculo-erosive lesions suggest genital herpes.
Question 65 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which picture points more towards urethritis than towards simple cystitis?
Explanation
Urethritis combines urethral signs, sometimes discharge, and should lead to discussion of an STI.
Question 66 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which principle is most relevant when faced with a suspected but minimally symptomatic STI?
Explanation
STIs may be minimally symptomatic; screening, prevention and guidance are essential principles.
Question 67 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which element is part of the general principles of management of a confirmed STI?
Explanation
Management of STIs includes prevention, screening and consideration of partners in a medical setting.
Question 68 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What elements belong to the general evaluation of a suspected STI?
Explanation
A, B and C are relevant. D is false because clinical regression does not exclude an STI.
Question 69 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What diagnoses or frameworks should be discussed when faced with genital ulceration?
Explanation
A, B, C and D can be included in the differential diagnosis of genital ulceration.
Question 70 / 122
Open question
Describe the general clinical reasoning when faced with suspicious genital ulceration.
Explanation
Pain, induration, number of lesions, lymphadenopathy, associated cutaneous and mucosal signs, STI context, infectious and non-infectious differential diagnoses, need for screening, prevention, medical guidance and consideration of partners must be specified.
Question 71 / 122
Cutaneous leishmaniasis, cutaneous tuberculosis and specific infections
QCS · single choice
Which picture is most reminiscent of cutaneous leishmaniasis in a compatible area?
Explanation
Cutaneous leishmaniasis suggests a chronic, nodular or ulcerated lesion, in a compatible epidemiological context.
Question 72 / 122
QCS · single choice
What element reinforces the hypothesis of cutaneous tuberculosis in the face of an atypical chronic lesion?
Explanation
Cutaneous tuberculosis is a specific chronic infection requiring appropriate diagnostic confirmation.
Question 73 / 122
QCS · single choice
What differential diagnosis should be discussed in the face of atypical chronic skin ulceration?
Explanation
A skin carcinoma can mimic or complicate the reasoning in the face of chronic ulceration.
Question 74 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which contextual element has particular value in the face of a chronic ulcerative-crusting lesion?
Explanation
The epidemiological context is essential to suggest leishmaniasis or a specific infection.
Question 75 / 122
QCS · single choice
What consequence should be anticipated in the face of certain chronic ulcerated skin infections?
Explanation
Chronic ulcerated lesions, particularly leishmanial lesions, can leave scars.
Question 76 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What elements can support a specific chronic skin infection?
Explanation
A, B and C support a specific infection. D evokes another dermatological framework.
Question 77 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What are the closest diagnoses for chronic skin ulceration?
Explanation
A, B and C are close diagnoses. D is a non-ulcerated fleeting dermatosis.
Question 78 / 122
Open question
Cite the arguments to look for in the face of chronic skin ulceration suspicious for a specific infection.
Explanation
Look for chronicity, nodular or ulcerated nature, location, geographical exposure, history, general signs, tumor, vascular and mycotic differential diagnoses, then direct towards microbiological or histological confirmation as a principle.
Question 79 / 122
Urticaria, pruritus, prurigo and skin allergies
QCS · single choice
Which clinical element best defines an urticarial lesion?
Explanation
Urticaria manifests itself as edematous, itchy and fleeting lesions.
Question 80 / 122
QCS · single choice
What sign associated with urticaria requires particular vigilance?
Explanation
Angioedema with difficulty breathing or worrying mucosal damage is a sign of seriousness.
Question 81 / 122
QCS · single choice
What element points towards chronic urticaria rather than an isolated acute episode?
Explanation
Chronicity is based on the repetition of urticarial outbreaks over time.
Question 82 / 122
QCS · single choice
What reasoning is most appropriate when faced with diffuse pruritus without visible primary elementary lesion?
Explanation
Pruritus without primary lesion requires a broad, dermatological and general analysis.
Question 83 / 122
QCS · single choice
What element best distinguishes prurigo from simple urticaria?
Explanation
Prurigo involves persistent and excoriated papular lesions, whereas urticaria is fleeting.
Question 84 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What elements are compatible with hives?
Explanation
A, B and C are characteristic. D refers to chronic scaly dermatosis.
Question 85 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What diagnoses or frameworks should be discussed when faced with diffuse pruritus?
Explanation
A, B and C are dermatological causes of pruritus. D does not usually explain diffuse pruritus.
Question 86 / 122
Open question
Summarize the approach to chronic pruritus with scratching lesions.
Explanation
Identify possible primary lesions, distinguish secondary excoriations and causal dermatosis, look for urticaria, eczema, scabies, prurigo, drug addiction or general cause, assess the impact and identify signs of seriousness such as angioedema or mucosal damage.
Question 87 / 122
Bullous dermatoses and eruptive fevers
QCS · single choice
Which description best defines a skin bleb?
Explanation
The bleb is a voluminous cutaneous fluid collection.
Question 88 / 122
QCS · single choice
What context points towards an autoimmune bullous dermatosis rather than simple vesicular eczema?
Explanation
Tense or extended bubbles, recurrent, in compatible conditions, raise the question of autoimmune bullous dermatosis.
Question 89 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which element points more towards bullous impetigo than towards autoimmune bullous dermatosis?
Explanation
Bullous impetigo is a superficial infection with fragile bubbles and suggestive crusts.
Question 90 / 122
QCS · single choice
What picture requires you to look for a serious cause in the face of a febrile rash?
Explanation
Purpura, mucosal damage and general deterioration are signs of seriousness in the face of a febrile rash.
Question 91 / 122
QCS · single choice
What element raises the question of drug addiction rather than a common viral exanthema?
Explanation
A diffuse rash with mucosal damage or severe signs should raise the question of serious toxicidermy.
Question 92 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which situation requires urgent referral to dermatology or a suitable medical environment?
Explanation
Extensive detachment, pain and mucosal damage may reveal serious drug or severe bullous dermatosis.
Question 93 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What are the warning signs for a bullous or febrile rash?
Explanation
A, B and C are warning signs. D evokes a less specific and less serious situation in isolation.
Question 94 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What diagnoses can enter into the reasoning when faced with skin bubbles?
Explanation
A, B and C are plausible diagnoses in the face of bubbles. D does not give typical skin bubbles.
Question 95 / 122
Open question
Describe the signs that should cause a bullous or febrile rash to be considered potentially serious.
Explanation
Look for the extent, skin pain, detachment, mucosal damage, purpura, necrosis, high fever, general deterioration, fragile terrain and the context of drug addiction or severe infection.
Question 96 / 122
Skin tumors, carcinomas and melanoma
QCS · single choice
What clinical element makes a pigmented lesion suspicious for melanoma?
Explanation
Asymmetry, irregularity, polychromy and evolution are warning signs of melanoma.
Question 97 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which aspect is the most reassuring for a melanocytic nevus?
Explanation
A symmetrical, homogeneous and stable nevus is less suspicious than a progressive and irregular lesion.
Question 98 / 122
QCS · single choice
What aspect most suggests basal cell carcinoma?
Explanation
Basal cell carcinoma often presents as a chronic pearly lesion with telangiectasias.
Question 99 / 122
QCS · single choice
What element raises the question of squamous cell carcinoma in the face of a chronic skin lesion?
Explanation
A persistent keratotic or ulcerated lesion on photo-exposed skin should prompt discussion of squamous cell carcinoma.
Question 100 / 122
QCS · single choice
What element requires us not to trivialize chronic skin ulceration?
Explanation
Induration, bleeding or persistence of ulceration may reveal a skin tumor.
Question 101 / 122
QCS · single choice
What factor generally increases the risk of photo-induced skin tumors?
Explanation
Exposure to ultraviolet light is a major risk factor for photo-induced skin tumors.
Question 102 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which principle is best suited to a progressive and irregular pigmented lesion?
Explanation
A progressive and irregular pigmented lesion requires specialized dermatological evaluation.
Question 103 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What are warning signs of a pigmented lesion?
Explanation
A, B and C are warning signs. D is rather reassuring.
Question 104 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What elements support a suspicion of skin carcinoma?
Explanation
A, B and C support a tumor suspicion. D suggests hives.
Question 105 / 122
Open question
List the clinical signs which should raise suspicion of a malignant skin tumor.
Explanation
Discuss asymmetry, irregular edges, polychromy, recent development, bleeding, persistent ulceration, induration, pearly or chronic keratotic nodule, photo-exposed location, risk factors and the need for dermatological referral.
Question 106 / 122
Leg ulcer, varicose veins and cutaneous vascular pathology
QCS · single choice
Which picture most suggests a venous leg ulcer?
Explanation
Venous ulcer is associated with chronic venous insufficiency: edema, varicose veins, stasis dermatitis and perimalleolar location.
Question 107 / 122
QCS · single choice
What element points towards an arterial component in a leg ulcer?
Explanation
Pain, distalization, coldness and decreased pulse point to arterial damage.
Question 108 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which element favors stasis dermatitis rather than erysipelas?
Explanation
Stasis dermatitis is chronic, often bilateral, with signs of venous insufficiency.
Question 109 / 122
QCS · single choice
What element should cause a tumor cause to be discussed in the face of a chronic leg ulcer?
Explanation
An indurated edge, atypia or an unusual development requires discussion of a tumoral ulcer.
Question 110 / 122
QCS · single choice
What skin complication can be part of chronic venous insufficiency with varicose veins?
Explanation
Varicose veins can be associated with stasis dermatitis and venous ulcers.
Question 111 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which principle is the most correct in the face of a chronic leg ulcer?
Explanation
Management is based on the identification of the etiology and severity factors.
Question 112 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What elements support chronic venous insufficiency?
Explanation
A, B and C support chronic venous insufficiency. D is related to urticaria.
Question 113 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What elements should lead to the discussion of a non-venous or mixed cause of a leg ulcer?
Explanation
A, B and C require broadening the reasoning. D alone is not enough to characterize an ulcer.
Question 114 / 122
Open question
Compare the clinical arguments of a venous ulcer and an arterial ulcer.
Explanation
The venous ulcer is often perimalleolar, associated with edema, varicose veins, stasis dermatitis and ocher pigmentation. The arterial ulcer is more distal, painful, with cold skin, trophic disorders and diminished pulse. An ulcer can be mixed or atypical, requiring an etiological evaluation.
Question 115 / 122
Alopecia, dyschromia and occupational dermatoses
QCS · single choice
What element points towards scarring rather than non-scarring alopecia?
Explanation
Loss of follicular openings suggests scarring alopecia.
Question 116 / 122
QCS · single choice
Which picture suggests a ringworm of the scalp rather than alopecia areata?
Explanation
Ringworm combines scales, broken hair and possible infectiousness; Alopecia areata is more likely to be smooth.
Question 117 / 122
QCS · single choice
What element makes pigmented dyschromia more suspicious than ordinary post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation?
Explanation
Asymmetry, irregular edges and recent developments are pigmentary warning signs.
Question 118 / 122
QCS · single choice
What argument supports occupational contact dermatosis?
Explanation
A relationship between occupational exposure and eczema, particularly of the hands, supports occupational dermatosis.
Question 119 / 122
QCS · single choice
What element distinguishes clear depigmentation from post-inflammatory hypopigmentation?
Explanation
Achromic depigmentation is more complete than simple post-inflammatory hypopigmentation.
Question 120 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
Which situations are more compatible with non-scarring alopecia?
Explanation
A, B and C are usually non-scarring. D suggests scarring alopecia.
Question 121 / 122
MCQ · multiple choice
What elements support the occupational origin of contact dermatosis?
Explanation
A, B and C support professional origin. D rather suggests an acute skin infection.
Question 122 / 122
Open question
Present the clinical approach to plaque alopecia associated with a color abnormality of the scalp.
Explanation
Specify whether the alopecia is scarring or not, look for scales, broken hair, inflammation, loss of follicular orifices, signs of ringworm or alopecia areata, analyze the dyschromia, its age, its evolution, the professional or inflammatory context and direct the examinations according to the hypothesis.