Question 1 / 173
ECG and semiology explorations
QCS · single choice
On a standard ECG, which wave corresponds to atrial depolarization?
Explanation
The P wave represents atrial depolarization.
Question 2 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the normal duration of the QRS complex in adults?
Explanation
The normal QRS complex lasts less than 80 ms (< 0.08 s).
Question 3 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which ECG lead specifically explores the lower wall of the left ventricle?
Explanation
DII, DIII and aVF explore the lower wall of the left ventricle.
Question 4 / 173
QCS · single choice
An electrical QRS axis between -30° and +90° is considered as:
Explanation
The normal axis of the QRS is between -30° and +90°.
Question 5 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which ECG criterion is most used to diagnose left ventricular hypertrophy?
Explanation
The Sokolow-Lyon criterion is the main ECG criterion for LVH.
Question 6 / 173
QCS · single choice
Where is the aortic focus best auscultated?
Explanation
The aortic focus is in the 2nd right intercostal space, sternal border.
Question 7 / 173
QCS · single choice
A pathological Q wave is defined by:
Explanation
The pathological Q wave: duration > 40 ms and amplitude > 25% of the R in ≥ 2 contiguous leads.
Question 8 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the normal value of the PR interval?
Explanation
The normal PR interval is between 120 and 200 ms (0.12-0.20 s).
Question 9 / 173
QCS · single choice
The B3 sound (3rd sound) on cardiac auscultation is suggestive of:
Explanation
B3 is a proto-diastolic gallop suggestive of heart failure with volume overload.
Question 10 / 173
QCS · single choice
Horizontal or descending ST segment depression is mainly suggestive of:
Explanation
Horizontal or descending ST depression suggests subendocardial ischemia.
Question 11 / 173
QCS · single choice
The 24-hour Holter ECG is particularly indicated for:
Explanation
The Holter ECG is indicated for the detection of paroxysmal rhythm disturbances.
Question 12 / 173
QCS · single choice
The exercise test (stress test) is contraindicated in cases of:
Explanation
Symptomatic severe aortic stenosis is an absolute contraindication to stress testing.
Question 13 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
Which of the following is part of the ECG criteria for left ventricular hypertrophy?
Explanation
The Sokolow-Lyon criteria and the Cornell index are two criteria for LVH.
Question 14 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What investigations can be used to assess left ventricular systolic function?
Explanation
ETT, myocardial scintigraphy, and isotope ventriculography assess LVEF.
Question 15 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
Which of the following signs correspond to pathological cardiac auscultation?
Explanation
Systolic ejection murmur, B3 in an older adult, and diastolic murmur are pathological.
Question 16 / 173
Open question
Describe the steps for systematically reading a 12-lead ECG.
Explanation
Rhythm (regular/irregular, frequency), P wave (present/morphology), PR, QRS (duration, axis, morphology), ST (high/low), T wave, corrected QT.
Question 17 / 173
Open question
What are the main clinical signs of left heart failure?
Explanation
Dyspnea on exertion then at rest, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, tachycardia, bilateral pulmonary crackles, B3 gallop.
Question 18 / 173
Hypertension and cardiovascular risk
QCS · single choice
What blood pressure value defines grade 1 hypertension in adults in a doctor's office?
Explanation
Grade 1 hypertension corresponds to SBP 140-159 mmHg or DBP 90-99 mmHg.
Question 19 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which element strongly points towards secondary rather than essential arterial hypertension?
Explanation
Hypertension resistant to triple therapy including a diuretic points to a secondary cause.
Question 20 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which situation corresponds to a true hypertensive emergency (requiring a rapid drop in blood pressure)?
Explanation
Hypertensive encephalopathy (neurological symptoms) associated with severe hypertension constitutes a hypertensive emergency.
Question 21 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which of the following complications is target organ damage directly related to chronic hypertension?
Explanation
Left ventricular hypertrophy is a target organ damage of hypertension.
Question 22 / 173
QCS · single choice
To assess the overall cardiovascular risk of a hypertensive patient, the following must be taken into account:
Explanation
The overall cardiovascular risk includes blood pressure level, associated risk factors and target organ damage.
Question 23 / 173
QCS · single choice
What clinical picture should suggest primary hyperaldosteronism as a cause of secondary hypertension?
Explanation
Primary hyperaldosteronism combines hypertension, spontaneous hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis.
Question 24 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which class of antihypertensive drugs is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its fetal nephrotoxic effect?
Explanation
ACE inhibitors and ARBs II are contraindicated during pregnancy (fetal nephrotoxicity).
Question 25 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which cardiovascular complication of hypertension is mainly linked to chronic arterial stiffness?
Explanation
Hypertension accelerates atherosclerosis and promotes coronary insufficiency.
Question 26 / 173
QCS · single choice
ABPM (ambulatory blood pressure measurement) is particularly useful for identifying:
Explanation
ABPM can detect white coat hypertension and masked hypertension.
Question 27 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which of the following is a major independent cardiovascular risk factor?
Explanation
Type 2 diabetes is a major independent cardiovascular risk factor.
Question 28 / 173
QCS · single choice
What early paraclinical sign indicates renal damage in hypertension?
Explanation
Microalbuminuria is the early sign of hypertensive nephropathy.
Question 29 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What target organ damage is typically looked for in a hypertensive patient during the initial assessment?
Explanation
The target organ damage sought is LVH, retinopathy and nephropathy.
Question 30 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What etiologies should be considered for secondary hypertension in young adults?
Explanation
Renal artery stenosis, pheochromocytoma and primary hyperaldosteronism are classic causes of secondary hypertension.
Question 31 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What are the general principles of non-drug management of essential hypertension?
Explanation
Hygiene-dietary measures include sodium restriction, physical activity and smoking cessation.
Question 32 / 173
Open question
Define hypertensive emergency and distinguish it from simple hypertensive flare-up.
Explanation
Emergency: Severe hypertension + acute target organ damage (encephalopathy, dissection, PAO, anuria, eclampsia). Simple push: high numbers without acute visceral damage.
Question 33 / 173
Open question
What are the main factors taken into account in the assessment of the overall cardiovascular risk of a hypertensive person?
Explanation
Blood pressure level, smoking, diabetes, dyslipidemia, age, sex, familial ATCD, target organ damage, established cardiovascular diseases.
Question 34 / 173
Coronary heart disease, ACS and heart attack
QCS · single choice
Stable exertional angina is mainly characterized by:
Explanation
Stable angina is reproducible with exercise and resolves quickly with rest or trinitrin.
Question 35 / 173
QCS · single choice
The distinction between STEMI and NSTEMI is mainly based on:
Explanation
STEMI is defined by persistent ST elevation; the NSTEMI by its absence.
Question 36 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which characteristic of chest pain is most suggestive of a coronary origin?
Explanation
Coronary pain is typically constrictive retrosternal with radiation to the left arm.
Question 37 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which ECG sequence is characteristic of the development of a STEMI in the first hours?
Explanation
The ECG evolution of STEMI: ST elevation → necrotic Q wave → negative T wave.
Question 38 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which condition can clinically mimic a STEMI and must be eliminated before any urgent reperfusion strategy?
Explanation
Type A aortic dissection can mimic STEMI and is a contraindication to thrombolysis.
Question 39 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the most feared mechanical complication of extensive myocardial infarction in the first 24-48 hours?
Explanation
Rupture of the free wall of the LV is the most lethal mechanical complication of early infarction.
Question 40 / 173
QCS · single choice
The main difference between unstable angina and NSTEMI is:
Explanation
NSTEMI is distinguished from unstable angina by an elevation of troponin (myocardial necrosis).
Question 41 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which of the following is considered the strongest modifiable risk factor for coronary heart disease?
Explanation
Active smoking is the most potent modifiable cardiovascular risk factor.
Question 42 / 173
QCS · single choice
ST elevation in V1-V4 with mirror image in inferior leads corresponds to coronary damage of:
Explanation
The V1-V4 territory corresponds to the area perfused by the IVA (anterior interventricular artery).
Question 43 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the reference cardiac biomarker for the diagnosis of myocardial infarction?
Explanation
High sensitivity troponin I or T is the reference biomarker for MI.
Question 44 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which ECG element distinguishes acute pericarditis from STEMI?
Explanation
Pericarditis gives diffuse, concave ST elevation, without mirror or Q wave.
Question 45 / 173
QCS · single choice
What general principle governs the management of STEMI in the acute phase?
Explanation
The earliest possible reperfusion (primary angioplasty as a priority) is the fundamental principle of treatment of STEMI.
Question 46 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What are the early electrical complications of myocardial infarction?
Explanation
VF, complete BAV, and sustained VT are early electrical complications of MI.
Question 47 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What diagnoses should be ruled out in the face of severe acute chest pain before considering ACS?
Explanation
Aortic dissection, massive pulmonary embolism and pneumothorax are emergencies to be eliminated.
Question 48 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What elements can trigger or worsen stable angina?
Explanation
Effort, stress and cold are classic triggers of angina.
Question 49 / 173
Open question
Describe the diagnostic approach to acute chest pain suggestive of ACS.
Explanation
Emergency 12-lead ECG, high sensitivity troponin, clinical assessment (pain characteristics, coronary FDR), elimination of differential diagnoses (dissection, PE, pneumothorax).
Question 50 / 173
Open question
What is the meaning of a pathological Q wave on the ECG and what criteria define it?
Explanation
Transmural myocardial necrosis. Criteria: duration > 40 ms, amplitude > 25% of R, present in at least two contiguous leads.
Question 51 / 173
Heart failure, OAP and cardiogenic shock
QCS · single choice
What is the characteristic auscultatory sign of congestive left heart failure?
Explanation
Bilateral crackles at the lung bases indicate pulmonary edema of the left IC.
Question 52 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which clinical sign is specific to right heart failure and absent in isolated left heart failure?
Explanation
Jugular turgor indicates central venous hypertension specific to the right IC.
Question 53 / 173
QCS · single choice
What clinical element makes it possible to distinguish a cardiogenic OAP from a severe acute asthma attack?
Explanation
Crepitants, jugular turgor and the context of heart disease point towards cardiogenic PAO.
Question 54 / 173
QCS · single choice
What hemodynamic parameter characterizes cardiogenic shock compared to hypovolemic shock?
Explanation
Cardiogenic shock presents with elevated pulmonary capillary wedge pressure (overload); hypovolemic shock low pressure (deficit).
Question 55 / 173
QCS · single choice
Orthopnea is defined as:
Explanation
Orthopnea is increased dyspnea in recumbency, relieved by sitting or standing.
Question 56 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which compensatory mechanism is activated first in chronic heart failure?
Explanation
Neurohormonal activation (sympathetic + RAAS) is the primary compensatory mechanism of HF.
Question 57 / 173
QCS · single choice
A patient who presents with dyspnea upon moderate effort (climbing one floor) without dyspnea at rest corresponds to the NYHA class:
Explanation
NYHA class III corresponds to dyspnea for moderate efforts with notable limitation of activity.
Question 58 / 173
QCS · single choice
Heart failure with preserved ejection fraction (HFpEF) is characterized by:
Explanation
HFpEF: LVEF ≥ 50% with clinical signs of HF and relaxation disorder (diastolic dysfunction).
Question 59 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which biomarker is used for the diagnosis and monitoring of heart failure?
Explanation
BNP and NT-proBNP are the reference biomarkers for HF.
Question 60 / 173
QCS · single choice
What parameter makes it possible to distinguish cardiogenic shock from septic shock?
Explanation
Septic shock is vasodilatory (low SVR); cardiogenic shock is vasoconstrictive (high SVR).
Question 61 / 173
QCS · single choice
What clinical sign indicates the seriousness of a cardiogenic PAO and requires immediate treatment?
Explanation
Pinkish foamy sputum with cyanosis and drawing indicates a serious, life-threatening PAO.
Question 62 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What are the classic causes of isolated right heart failure?
Explanation
PE, PAH, and chronic cor pulmonale are causes of right-sided HF.
Question 63 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
Which drug classes have shown a benefit on mortality in heart failure with reduced EF?
Explanation
Beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors and MRAs have a demonstrated prognostic benefit in rHFp.
Question 64 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What elements indicate the seriousness of a cardiogenic PAO and require monitoring in intensive care?
Explanation
Refractory desaturation, respiratory exhaustion and cardiogenic shock are serious criteria.
Question 65 / 173
Open question
Define cardiogenic shock and distinguish it from other states of shock.
Explanation
Cardiogenic shock: tissue hypoperfusion due to heart pump failure. SBP < 90 mmHg, signs of hypoperfusion, high filling CI (PCP ≥ 18 mmHg), low cardiac index (< 2.2 L/min/m²). Differences with hypovolemic shock (low pressure, signs of dehydration) and septic shock (vasodilation, low SVR, fever/infectious focus).
Question 66 / 173
Open question
What are the clinical signs that differentiate left heart failure from right heart failure?
Explanation
Left HF: dyspnea, orthopnea, pulmonary crackles, B3 gallop, tachycardia, pink sputum. Right IC: jugular turgor, hepatomegaly, hepatojugular reflux, sloping edema, ascites.
Question 67 / 173
Valvulopathy, RAA and infective endocarditis
QCS · single choice
What is the characteristic auscultatory sound of mitral stenosis?
Explanation
RM gives a diastolic roll with presystolic strengthening at the apex.
Question 68 / 173
QCS · single choice
What clinical sign allows you to differentiate mitral stenosis from mitral regurgitation on cardiac auscultation?
Explanation
MI: holosystolic murmur. RM: diastolic rolling.
Question 69 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the classic symptomatic triad of symptomatic tight aortic stenosis?
Explanation
Symptomatic tight RAo manifests as exertional angina, exertional syncope and dyspnea.
Question 70 / 173
QCS · single choice
What type of murmur is characteristic of chronic aortic insufficiency?
Explanation
The IAO gives a decreasing holodiastolic murmur to the left border of the sternum.
Question 71 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which of the following is a major Jones criterion for the diagnosis of rheumatic fever?
Explanation
Carditis is a major Jones criterion for RAA.
Question 72 / 173
QCS · single choice
According to the Duke criteria, the diagnosis of infective endocarditis is certain if:
Explanation
The diagnosis of IE is certain with 2 major criteria, or 1 major + 3 minor, or 5 minor according to Duke.
Question 73 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which organism is most frequently responsible for infective endocarditis of native valves?
Explanation
Viridans streptococci (oral) are the most common germs of native valve IE.
Question 74 / 173
QCS · single choice
What complication should be considered when faced with a revealing cerebral embolism in a febrile patient with valvular heart disease?
Explanation
A cerebral embolism in a febrile patient with valvular disease should suggest an IE with emboligenic vegetation.
Question 75 / 173
QCS · single choice
What peripheral clinical sign is characteristic of chronic large aortic insufficiency?
Explanation
Severe chronic IAO gives a bounding (Corrigan) pulse with widened pulse pressure.
Question 76 / 173
QCS · single choice
What immune mechanism is responsible for cardiac damage during RAA?
Explanation
AAR results from an autoimmune cross-reaction between streptococcal antigens and cardiac tissues.
Question 77 / 173
QCS · single choice
What complication should be systematically looked for in any wearer of a mechanical valve prosthesis?
Explanation
Wearers of mechanical prostheses risk thrombosis or embolism due to insufficient anticoagulation.
Question 78 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
Which of the following are major Duke criteria for infective endocarditis?
Explanation
Typical blood cultures and echocardiographic data are the major criteria at Duke.
Question 79 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What complications can occur in advanced mitral valve disease?
Explanation
AF, PAH and congestive HF are common complications of mitral valve disease.
Question 80 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What extracardiac manifestations are part of the picture of acute rheumatic fever?
Explanation
Migratory arthritis, Sydenham's chorea and erythema marginatum are manifestations of AAR.
Question 81 / 173
Open question
How to make the diagnosis of infective endocarditis and what tests are essential?
Explanation
Duke criteria: repeated blood cultures (before antibiotic therapy) + echocardiography (ETT then TEE if negative or inconclusive). Front door search.
Question 82 / 173
Open question
Describe the natural history of rheumatic mitral stenosis and its complications.
Explanation
RAA → fibrosis and progressive calcification of the mitral valves → transmitral gradient → post-capillary PAH → right IC. Complications: AF (OG dilatation), systemic embolism, hemoptysis, endocarditis.
Question 83 / 173
Rhythm and conduction disorders
QCS · single choice
What ECG appearance characterizes atrial fibrillation?
Explanation
AF is characterized by anarchic atrial activity 'f' and an irregular RR interval.
Question 84 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the main ECG difference between atrial flutter and atrial fibrillation?
Explanation
Flutter: regular sawtooth F waves at ~300/min. AF: irregular anarchic atrial activity.
Question 85 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the ECG characteristic of the BAV Mobitz II?
Explanation
The BAV Mobitz II: fixed PR then sudden blocking of a P wave without prior lengthening.
Question 86 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the typical ventricular rate in a complete BAV with junctional escape rhythm?
Explanation
The junctional escape rate in the complete BAV is 40-60/min.
Question 87 / 173
QCS · single choice
What ECG appearance characterizes a complete left bundle branch block (LBBB)?
Explanation
The BBGC: QRS ≥ 120 ms, R wide and hooked in V5-V6, QS in V1.
Question 88 / 173
QCS · single choice
What non-drug maneuver can reduce paroxysmal junctional tachycardia?
Explanation
Vagal maneuvers (Valsalva, carotid massage) can reduce junctional tachycardia.
Question 89 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which ECG criterion indicates ventricular tachycardia rather than supraventricular tachycardia with conduction aberration?
Explanation
The concordance of the precordial QRS indicates ventricular tachycardia.
Question 90 / 173
QCS · single choice
What clinical characteristic distinguishes rhythmic syncope from vasovagal syncope?
Explanation
Rhythmic syncope occurs suddenly without a prodrome, often traumatic, during exercise or at rest.
Question 91 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the main embolic complication of non-anticoagulated atrial fibrillation?
Explanation
AF puts you at risk of ischemic stroke through left atrial (auricular) thrombus embolism.
Question 92 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the ECG definition of 1st degree atrioventricular block?
Explanation
1st degree BAV: PR > 200 ms constant without QRS block.
Question 93 / 173
QCS · single choice
What ECG appearance is characteristic of a ventricular extrasystole (VES)?
Explanation
ESV: Wide and bizarre QRS, premature, without P wave, followed by a compensatory pause.
Question 94 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What types of atrioventricular block require implantation of a permanent pacemaker?
Explanation
Complete BAV and symptomatic Mobitz II BAV are classic indications for permanent pacemaker.
Question 95 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What conditions can trigger or promote atrial fibrillation?
Explanation
Hyperthyroidism, mitral valve disease, and acute pericarditis can trigger AF.
Question 96 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What criteria allow for the diagnosis of complete right bundle branch block (RBBB)?
Explanation
The BBDC: QRS ≥ 120 ms, RSR' in V1, wide and deep S wave in DI and V6.
Question 97 / 173
Open question
Classify atrioventricular blocks by describing their ECG characteristics and respective prognosis.
Explanation
BAV 1°: PR > 200 ms stable, benign. BAV 2° Mobitz I: progressive PR lengthening + blocked QRS, often benign vagal. BAV 2° Mobitz II: sudden blockage without lengthening, risk of progression to complete BAV. BAV 3°: complete AV dissociation, slow, serious escape rhythm.
Question 98 / 173
Open question
What are the general principles of management of atrial fibrillation?
Explanation
Three axes: rate control, rhythm control (cardioversion), thromboembolic prevention (anticoagulation according to CHA2DS2-VASc score). Treatment of the underlying cause.
Question 99 / 173
Thromboembolic disease and antithrombotics
QCS · single choice
Which paraclinical examination is considered the reference to confirm deep vein thrombosis of the lower limbs?
Explanation
Venous Doppler ultrasound is the gold standard for the diagnosis of DVT.
Question 100 / 173
QCS · single choice
What ECG pattern is classically associated with severe pulmonary embolism?
Explanation
The S1Q3T3 appearance is classically associated with severe pulmonary embolism.
Question 101 / 173
QCS · single choice
What combination of clinical signs specifically points towards a massive pulmonary embolism rather than a myocardial infarction or pneumothorax?
Explanation
Sudden dyspnea, tachycardia, sign of DVP, cyanosis and right ECG deviation point to a massive PE.
Question 102 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the main clinical utility of D-dimer in thromboembolic disease?
Explanation
Negative D-dimer allows exclusion of VTE in a patient with low clinical probability.
Question 103 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the main mechanism of action of vitamin K antagonists (AVK)?
Explanation
AVK inhibit the hepatic synthesis of vitamin K-dependent factors (II, VII, IX, X).
Question 104 / 173
QCS · single choice
What clinical sign indicates deep vein thrombosis rather than acute arterial ischemia of the lower limb?
Explanation
The red, warm, edematous limb with positive Homans sign indicates DVT.
Question 105 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the most serious bleeding complication of anticoagulants?
Explanation
Intracranial hematoma is the most serious hemorrhagic complication of anticoagulants.
Question 106 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the mechanism of action of aspirin as an antiplatelet agent?
Explanation
Aspirin irreversibly inhibits platelet COX-1, reducing thromboxane A2 synthesis.
Question 107 / 173
QCS · single choice
In which clinical situation is double antiplatelet aggregation preferred to anticoagulation?
Explanation
After coronary stenting for ACS, dual antiplatelet aggregation is indicated.
Question 108 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is Virchow's triad that promotes venous thrombosis?
Explanation
Virchow's triad: venous stasis, endothelial injury and hypercoagulability.
Question 109 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What properties distinguish low molecular weight heparins (LMWH) from unfractionated heparins (UFH)?
Explanation
LMWHs have predictable subcutaneous bioavailability and preferentially inhibit factor Xa.
Question 110 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What risk factors promote venous thromboembolism?
Explanation
Immobilization, neoplasia, and thrombophilia are FDRs of VTE.
Question 111 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What situations constitute general contraindications to anticoagulants?
Explanation
Recent intracranial hemorrhage, severe thrombocytopenia and recent surgery with high hemorrhagic risk are contraindications to anticoagulants.
Question 112 / 173
Open question
Describe the diagnostic process for pulmonary embolism and the elements of stratification of its severity.
Explanation
Clinical probability (Wells score), D-dimer if low probability, CT angiography if positive or intermediate/high probability. Severity: hemodynamics, echocardiography (RV dysfunction), troponin, BNP.
Question 113 / 173
Open question
What are the main pharmacological principles that govern the use of anticoagulants in practice?
Explanation
Balance thrombotic benefit vs hemorrhagic risk. Biological monitoring adapted to the type (INR for AVK, anti-Xa for LMWH). Adaptation to renal and hepatic functions. Duration according to the indication (short term for provoked PE, long term if AF or recurrence).
Question 114 / 173
Aorta, arteriopathy and acute limb ischemia
QCS · single choice
What is the definition of vascular intermittent claudication in PAD?
Explanation
Intermittent claudication: exertional muscular pain relieved by stopping, linked to exertional ischemia.
Question 115 / 173
QCS · single choice
What are the characteristic clinical signs of acute lower limb ischemia?
Explanation
Acute limb ischemia: pallor, coldness, intense pain, lost pulse, paresthesias/paralysis.
Question 116 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which pain feature is most suggestive of aortic dissection?
Explanation
Aortic dissection causes immediate maximal tearing pain, migrating to the back and abdomen.
Question 117 / 173
QCS · single choice
In the Stanford classification of aortic dissections, what is the difference between type A and type B?
Explanation
Stanford A: damage to the ascending aorta. Stanford B: limited to the descending aorta.
Question 118 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the significance of a systolic pressure index (SPI) lower than 0.9 in the lower limb?
Explanation
An ABI < 0.9 indicates PAD.
Question 119 / 173
QCS · single choice
What abdominal aortic diameter value defines an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA)?
Explanation
An AAA is defined by an aortic diameter > 30 mm (or > 50% of the overlying segment).
Question 120 / 173
QCS · single choice
Why is thrombolysis contraindicated in cases of type A aortic dissection mimicking ACS?
Explanation
Thrombolysis can aggravate aortic dissection by promoting intraparietal hemorrhage.
Question 121 / 173
QCS · single choice
What Leriche-Fontaine stage does rest pain with skin ischemia correspond to (trophic disorders)?
Explanation
Leriche-Fontaine stage IV corresponds to trophic disorders (ulcers, gangrene).
Question 122 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the main cause of acute lower limb ischemia?
Explanation
Cardiac embolism is the main cause of acute limb ischemia.
Question 123 / 173
QCS · single choice
What clinical element allows us to distinguish acute arterial ischemia from deep vein thrombosis of the lower limb?
Explanation
Arterial ischemia: pale, cold limb, absent pulse. DVT: warm, erythematous, edematous limb, preserved pulse.
Question 124 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What complications can result from a type A aortic dissection?
Explanation
Type A dissection can result in tamponade, acute IAO, and coronary occlusion.
Question 125 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
Which risk factors are most strongly associated with PAD?
Explanation
Smoking, diabetes and dyslipidemia are the main risk factors for PAD.
Question 126 / 173
Open question
Describe the diagnostic approach to suspected acute aortic dissection.
Explanation
Clinical: migrating tearing pain, blood pressure asymmetry. Urgent assessment: ECG (eliminate IDM), chest x-ray (mediastinal widening), reference thoraco-abdomino-pelvic angioscan. Don't forget to eliminate a PE.
Question 127 / 173
Open question
Why is acute limb ischemia an absolute therapeutic emergency?
Explanation
Deprivation of blood supply exposes one to irreversible muscle necrosis in less than 6 hours. Beyond that, amputation is inevitable. Restoration of flow must be as rapid as possible (surgical or endovascular revascularization).
Question 128 / 173
Pericardium, myocardium, PAH and cor pulmonale
QCS · single choice
Which auscultatory sign is pathognomonic of acute pericarditis?
Explanation
Pericardial friction is the pathognomonic auscultatory sign of acute pericarditis.
Question 129 / 173
QCS · single choice
What ECG sign is characteristic of acute pericarditis and absent in myocardial infarction?
Explanation
PR depression is a specific ECG sign of acute pericarditis.
Question 130 / 173
QCS · single choice
What clinical triad characterizes pericardial tamponade (Beck triad)?
Explanation
Beck's triad: hypotension, jugular turgor, muffled heart sounds.
Question 131 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which clinical picture is most suggestive of acute myocarditis?
Explanation
Myocarditis manifests as chest pain and elevation of troponin after a viral infectious episode in young adults.
Question 132 / 173
QCS · single choice
What mean pulmonary artery pressure (avg PAP) value defines pulmonary arterial hypertension?
Explanation
PAH is defined by an average PAP > 20 mmHg at right catheterization at rest.
Question 133 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the most common cause of chronic cor pulmonale?
Explanation
COPD is the most common cause of chronic cor pulmonale.
Question 134 / 173
QCS · single choice
What ultrasound feature distinguishes dilated cardiomyopathy from obstructive hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Explanation
Dilated cardiomyopathy: dilated LV, collapsed LVEF. HCM: hypertrophic LV with preserved or supernormal LVEF.
Question 135 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the physiopathological distinction between tamponade and chronic constrictive pericarditis?
Explanation
Tamponade: compression by acute effusion. Constriction: thickened and rigid pericardium chronically limiting filling.
Question 136 / 173
QCS · single choice
How to distinguish dyspnea due to primary pulmonary arterial hypertension from dyspnea due to left heart failure?
Explanation
Primary PAH: RV dilatation, normal LV. Left IC: LV dilation, LVEF lowered.
Question 137 / 173
QCS · single choice
What examination can confirm the diagnosis of acute myocarditis and formally distinguish it from acute coronary syndrome?
Explanation
Cardiac MRI with non-systematized late enhancement confirms myocarditis.
Question 138 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What etiologies should be considered when faced with abundant pericardial effusion?
Explanation
Neoplasia, renal failure and hypothyroidism can cause profuse pericardial effusion.
Question 139 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What clinical signs indicate advanced pulmonary hypertension with right side failure?
Explanation
Jugular turgor, hepatomegaly and edema indicate right heart failure in PAH.
Question 140 / 173
Open question
What are the diagnostic criteria for acute pericarditis and how to differentiate it from myocardial infarction?
Explanation
At least 2 of the 4 criteria: pericardial chest pain (pleuritic, relieved leaning forward), pericardial rub, concave diffuse ST elevation with PR depression, new pericardial effusion. ECG: diffuse elevation without territory, concave, without Q wave, with PR depression.
Question 141 / 173
Open question
Explain the pathophysiological mechanism of chronic cor pulmonale in COPD.
Explanation
Chronic hypoxia → hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction → PAH → RV pressure overload → hypertrophy then RV dilatation → right HF.
Question 142 / 173
Congenital heart diseases, pregnancy, surgery and prostheses
QCS · single choice
Which congenital heart disease is classified as left-to-right shunts?
Explanation
CIA is a congenital heart disease with left-right shunt (initial non-cyanogenic).
Question 143 / 173
QCS · single choice
Why can an untreated left-right shunt be complicated by shunt reversal (Eisenmenger syndrome)?
Explanation
The L-R shunt leads to pulmonary overload → PAH → reversal of the R-L shunt (Eisenmenger syndrome).
Question 144 / 173
QCS · single choice
What characteristic of a heart murmur in children points toward an innocent murmur rather than congenital heart disease?
Explanation
The innocent murmur is systolic, soft, short, grade 1-2/6, modified by position and breathing.
Question 145 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which physiological change during pregnancy represents a particular risk for a woman with severe mitral stenosis?
Explanation
Increased cardiac output and heart rate in pregnancy worsen the MR gradient and may trigger PAO.
Question 146 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the main specific risk of mechanical valve prostheses requiring lifelong monitoring?
Explanation
Mechanical prostheses expose you to the risk of thrombosis or embolism if anticoagulation is insufficient.
Question 147 / 173
QCS · single choice
What mechanism explains cyanosis in tetralogy of Fallot?
Explanation
Pulmonary stenosis + CIV causes a D-G shunt with passage of non-oxygenated blood into the greater circulation.
Question 148 / 173
QCS · single choice
What main advantage does the bioprosthetic valve offer compared to the mechanical prosthesis?
Explanation
The bioprosthesis does not require long-term anticoagulation (after the initial period).
Question 149 / 173
QCS · single choice
What time during pregnancy and postpartum represents the maximum hemodynamic risk for a woman with heart disease?
Explanation
Childbirth and the immediate postpartum period represent the maximum hemodynamic risk for the cardiopath.
Question 150 / 173
QCS · single choice
In the event of persistent fever in a prosthetic valve wearer, what is the first test to be carried out?
Explanation
Multiple blood cultures before any antibiotic therapy are the first diagnostic step.
Question 151 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which heart disease is a relative contraindication to pregnancy due to very high maternal risk?
Explanation
Severe PAH and Eisenmenger syndrome constitute almost absolute contraindications to pregnancy.
Question 152 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
Which congenital heart diseases are classified as cyanogenic heart diseases?
Explanation
Tetralogy of Fallot and transposition of the great vessels are cyanogenic heart diseases.
Question 153 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What monitoring elements are a priority in a woman with heart disease during pregnancy?
Explanation
Monitoring echocardiography, blood pressure and signs of decompensation is a priority in pregnant women with heart disease.
Question 154 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What are the specific risks associated with wearing a long-term prosthetic valve?
Explanation
Thrombosis, endocarditis and degeneration (for bioprostheses) are the specific risks of valve prostheses.
Question 155 / 173
Open question
Explain the difference between left-right shunt and right-left shunt in congenital heart disease, in terms of clinical consequences.
Explanation
L-R shunt: oxygenated blood to the pulmonary circuit → pulmonary overload → PAH, without initial cyanosis. D-G shunt: non-oxygenated blood to the general circulation → central cyanosis.
Question 156 / 173
Open question
Why is anticoagulation monitoring essential and permanent in a mechanical valve prosthesis wearer?
Explanation
Mechanical prostheses are thrombogenic. Anticoagulation (AVK) prevents intraprosthetic thrombosis and embolisms. Underdosing exposes you to thrombosis; an overdose exposes you to hemorrhage. The INR must remain within the therapeutic target.
Question 157 / 173
Cardiovascular therapeutics
QCS · single choice
What is the main mechanism of action of loop diuretics (furosemide)?
Explanation
Loop diuretics inhibit the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter in the ascending loop of Henle.
Question 158 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the main absolute contraindication of beta-blockers in cardiology?
Explanation
Severe asthma or COPD with bronchospasm are absolute contraindications for non-selective beta-blockers.
Question 159 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors?
Explanation
Chronic dry cough is the most common side effect of ACE inhibitors.
Question 160 / 173
QCS · single choice
Why can ACE inhibitors and ARB IIs cause hyperkalemia?
Explanation
ACE inhibitors/ARBs II reduce aldosterone production, reducing renal elimination of potassium → hyperkalemia.
Question 161 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the mechanism of action of digitalis (digoxin) in cardiology?
Explanation
Digitalis inhibits Na+/K+-ATPase, leading to an increase in intracellular calcium and a positive inotropic effect.
Question 162 / 173
QCS · single choice
According to the Vaughan Williams classification, which group includes beta blockers?
Explanation
Beta blockers are class II in the Vaughan Williams classification.
Question 163 / 173
QCS · single choice
Which organ should be particularly monitored during prolonged treatment with amiodarone?
Explanation
The thyroid should be monitored under amiodarone, which can cause hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism.
Question 164 / 173
QCS · single choice
What mechanism explains the hypokalemia caused by loop diuretics as opposed to the hyperkalemia of potassium-sparing diuretics?
Explanation
Loop diuretics: increased distal flow → K+ secretion. Savers: aldosterone blockade → K+ retention.
Question 165 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the general mechanism of action of thrombolytics (fibrinolytics)?
Explanation
Thrombolytics activate plasminogen to plasmin, which lyses the fibrinous thrombus.
Question 166 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the main pharmacological difference between ACE inhibitors and ARB IIs?
Explanation
IEC: inhibit ACE → bradykinin ↑ → cough. ARA II: block AT1 without accumulation of bradykinin → no cough.
Question 167 / 173
QCS · single choice
In which cardiovascular pathologies have beta-blockers demonstrated a benefit on mortality?
Explanation
Beta-blockers have a demonstrated prognostic benefit in rHF, post-MI and for rate control in AF.
Question 168 / 173
QCS · single choice
What is the fundamental difference between an antiplatelet agent and an anticoagulant?
Explanation
Antiaggregant: inhibits platelets. Anticoagulant: acts on the coagulation cascade (plasma factors).
Question 169 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
Which therapeutic classes are part of the reference triple therapy in heart failure with reduced EF?
Explanation
The reference triple therapy for HFrEF: IEC (or RNAi), beta-blocker and ARM.
Question 170 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What side effects are common to ACE inhibitors and ARB IIs?
Explanation
Hyperkalemia, IR in case of bilateral stenosis and contraindication in pregnancy are common to ACE inhibitors and ARB II.
Question 171 / 173
MCQ · multiple choice
What are the classic indications for digitalis (digoxin) in cardiology?
Explanation
Digoxin is indicated for rate control of AF and symptomatic HF with reduced EF.
Question 172 / 173
Open question
Describe the main pharmacological characteristics and major adverse effects of amiodarone.
Explanation
Class III (K+ blocker). Multi-channel (Na+, K+, Ca²+, beta blocker). Very long half-life (40-55 days). Adverse effects: thyroid (hypo- or hyperthyroidism), lung (pneumonitis), liver (hepatotoxicity), skin (photosensitization, blue-gray coloring), eyes (corneal deposits), contraindicated pregnancy.
Question 173 / 173
Open question
What is the mechanism of action of beta-blockers and in which main categories of cardiovascular pathologies are they indicated?
Explanation
Blocking beta-adrenergic receptors: negative chronotropic effect (bradycardia), negative inotropic, negative dromotropic, hypotensive. Indications: HF with stable reduced EF, post-MI, hypertension, stable angina, AF (rate control), supraventricular tachycardias, prevention of sudden death.