Question 1 / 89
Anatomy
QCS · single choice
How many pairs of ribs normally make up the rib cage?
Explanation
The rib cage has 12 pairs of ribs: 7 pairs of true ribs (vertebro-sternal), 3 pairs of false ribs (vertebro-chondral) and 2 pairs of floating ribs.
Question 2 / 89
QCS · single choice
Which odd, middle bone closes the rib cage anteriorly?
Explanation
The sternum is the flat, odd, median bone located in the anterior part of the thorax; it articulates with the clavicles and the first seven costal cartilages.
Question 3 / 89
QCS · single choice
The mediastinum is limited laterally by:
Explanation
Laterally, the mediastinum is limited by the two mediastinal pleurae. The sternum limits it in front, the dorsal spine behind, and the diaphragm below.
Question 4 / 89
QCS · single choice
The septum primum and the septum secundum participate in septation:
Explanation
The septum primum then the septum secundum partition the primitive atrium, providing the foramen ovale which ensures the right-left fetal shunt.
Question 5 / 89
QCS · single choice
Spiral septation of the truncus arteriosus gives rise to:
Explanation
The aorticopulmonary septum, with a spiral arrangement, divides the common arterial trunk into the aorta and the pulmonary trunk.
Question 6 / 89
QCS · single choice
What is the general shape of the heart classically described in anatomy?
Explanation
The heart is shaped like a triangular pyramid with the base looking backwards and the top (apex) looking forward, down and to the left.
Question 7 / 89
QCS · single choice
The left atrioventricular (mitral) valve includes:
Explanation
The mitral (left atrioventricular) valve is bicuspid; the tricuspid valve (right) has three cusps.
Question 8 / 89
QCS · single choice
Where is the sinus node anatomically located (from Keith and Flack)?
Explanation
The sinus node is located in the wall of the right atrium, at the junction with the superior vena cava; it is the physiological pacemaker of the heart.
Question 9 / 89
QCS · single choice
What is the muscular layer making up most of the heart wall?
Explanation
The myocardium is the thickest muscular layer responsible for contraction. The endocardium lines the interior and the epicardium (visceral pericardium) covers the surface.
Question 10 / 89
QCS · single choice
In what order do the segments of the thoracic aorta follow one another from the left ventricle?
Explanation
The aorta arises from the left ventricle: ascending aorta, then arch (aortic arch), then descending thoracic aorta.
Question 11 / 89
QCS · single choice
The right and left coronary arteries arise:
Explanation
The right and left coronaries arise from the aortic sinuses (of Valsalva) located at the origin of the ascending aorta, just above the aortic valve.
Question 12 / 89
QCS · single choice
Most of the heart's venous blood drains into:
Explanation
Cardiac venous drainage occurs mainly through the coronary sinus, located in the posterior coronary sulcus, which empties into the right atrium.
Question 13 / 89
QCS · single choice
What structure classically marks the boundary between upper and lower airways?
Explanation
The larynx is considered the transition: above are the upper airways (nasal passages, pharynx) and below are the lower airways (trachea, bronchi).
Question 14 / 89
QCS · single choice
The nasal turbinates are located on the wall of the nasal cavity:
Explanation
The turbinates (upper, middle, lower) are bony reliefs of the lateral wall of the nasal cavity, delimiting the meatus.
Question 15 / 89
QCS · single choice
What is the largest cartilage of the larynx?
Explanation
The thyroid cartilage, forming the 'Adam's apple', is the largest of the laryngeal cartilages; the cricoid is ring-shaped and the epiglottis closes the vestibule during swallowing.
Question 16 / 89
QCS · single choice
The most vertical and widest main bronchus (stem), therefore more exposed to foreign bodies, is:
Explanation
The right main bronchus is wider, shorter and more vertical than the left; inhaled foreign bodies lodge there more readily.
Question 17 / 89
QCS · single choice
The trachea ends at the level of the carina by its division into:
Explanation
The tracheal bifurcation (carina) gives rise to the two main right and left bronchi.
Question 18 / 89
QCS · single choice
What is the main inspiration muscle?
Explanation
The diaphragm is the main inspiratory muscle; its contraction lowers the phrenic center and increases thoracic volume. The abdominals are accessory expirators.
Question 19 / 89
QCS · single choice
The pulmonary trunk arises from:
Explanation
The pulmonary trunk emerges from the right ventricle and carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs via the pulmonary arteries.
Question 20 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Which of the following organs are contained in the mediastinum?
Explanation
A, C, and D are correct: the mediastinum contains the heart, great vessels, trachea, main bronchi, esophagus, nerves, and thoracic duct. B is false: the lungs occupy the lateral pleuropulmonary compartments, outside the mediastinum.
Question 21 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Regarding the furrows on the surface of the heart, which statements are correct?
Explanation
A, B and D are correct: the coronary groove separates the atria and ventricles, the interventricular grooves house the interventricular arteries, and all of the grooves house the coronary vessels surrounded by fat. This is false: the ascending aorta arises from the left ventricle and is not located in the coronary groove.
Question 22 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Which of the structures belonging to the right ventricle are correct?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: the right ventricle receives the tricuspid valve, the cusps of which are connected to the pillars by the chordae tendineae. D is false: the mitral valve belongs to the left heart.
Question 23 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Concerning the pericardium, which propositions are correct?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: the external fibrous pericardium surrounds a serous pericardium with two layers delimiting a virtual cavity with lubricating liquid. D is false: it is the visceral layer of the serous (epicardium) which is attached to the myocardium, not the fibrous pericardium.
Question 24 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Which arteries arise from the arch of the aorta?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: the aortic arch gives, from right to left, the brachiocephalic trunk, the left common carotid and the left subclavian. D is false: the coronaries arise from the ascending aorta (sinus of Valsalva), not from the arch.
Question 25 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Concerning the left coronary artery, which propositions are correct?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: the left coronary artery arises from the left sinus and divides into the anterior descending (IVA) and circumflex, mainly supplying the left ventricle. D is false: the sinus node artery most often arises from the right coronary artery.
Question 26 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Concerning the cava and azygos system, which propositions are correct?
Explanation
A, B, and D are correct: the SVC drains the upper territory, the IVC the lower territory, and the azygos system drains the chest walls by emptying into the SVC. This is false: the venae cavae end in the right atrium, not the left.
Question 27 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Regarding lung lobation, which propositions are correct?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: the right lung has 3 lobes (upper, middle, lower), the left 2 lobes (upper, lower), the left upper lobe presenting the lingula (equivalent to the middle lobe). D is wrong: it is the right lung which has 3 lobes.
Question 28 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Concerning the pleura, which propositions are correct?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: the pleura is a serosa with two layers; the visceral adheres to the lung, and the virtual pleural cavity is the seat of negative pressure favoring pulmonary expansion. D is false: it is the visceral layer, and not the parietal, which covers the parenchyma.
Question 29 / 89
Open question
Briefly describe the main stages in the formation of the primary heart tube and its fate.
Explanation
The heart derives from the splanchnic mesoderm. Cardiogenic cells first form two endocardial tubes which fuse in the midline to form the primitive heart tube. This tube has several downstream segments upstream: the sinus venosus, the primary atrium, the primary ventricle, the cardiac bulb and the truncus arteriosus. It then undergoes plication (cardiac loop or bulbo-ventricular loop) to the right, then partitioning of the atrium (septum primum and secundum), ventricles (interventricular septum) and truncus arteriosus (spiral aortico-pulmonary septum) resulting in a four-chambered heart.
Question 30 / 89
Open question
List the principal relationships of the heart to the mediastinum.
Explanation
The heart, contained in the pericardial sac within the middle mediastinum, presents as follows: in front the sternum and the anterior chest wall (with the pleural recesses and the lungs); posteriorly the esophagus, the descending aorta and the dorsal spine; laterally the mediastinal pleura, lungs and phrenic nerves; below the diaphragm (on which the underside of the heart rests); at the top the large vessels (ascending aorta, pulmonary trunk, vena cavae).
Question 31 / 89
Histology
QCS · single choice
From the inside out, the three tunics of the heart wall are:
Explanation
The heart wall is made, from the lumen outwards, of the endocardium, the myocardium then the epicardium (visceral layer of the serous pericardium).
Question 32 / 89
QCS · single choice
Cardiomyocytes are linked together by specialized structures called:
Explanation
The intercalary discs (scalariform striae) provide mechanical anchoring (desmosomes, fascia adherens) and electrical coupling (communicating junctions/gap) between cardiomyocytes.
Question 33 / 89
QCS · single choice
Compared to an artery of the same caliber, the vein is characterized by:
Explanation
For comparable caliber, the vein has a thinner wall (underdeveloped media) and a wider lumen than the artery; some veins have valves.
Question 34 / 89
QCS · single choice
The endocardium is in histological continuity with:
Explanation
The endocardium, lining the interior of the cardiac cavities, is continuous with the endothelium which borders the lumen of the vessels.
Question 35 / 89
QCS · single choice
Microcirculation refers to the functional ensemble consisting of:
Explanation
The microcirculation brings together the arterioles, the capillary network and the post-capillary venules, the place of exchanges and local regulation of flow.
Question 36 / 89
QCS · single choice
The typical respiratory epithelium of the conducting airways is:
Explanation
The respiratory epithelium is ciliated columnar pseudostratified comprising mucus goblet cells, ensuring muco-ciliary clearance.
Question 37 / 89
QCS · single choice
What characteristic distinguishes the bronchiole from the bronchus?
Explanation
The bronchiole is distinguished by the absence of cartilage and glands; its wall contains smooth muscle and a thinning epithelium, with Clara (club) cells.
Question 38 / 89
QCS · single choice
Histologically, the pleura is a serosa lined by:
Explanation
Like any serosa, the pleura is covered with a simple squamous mesothelium resting on submesothelial connective tissue.
Question 39 / 89
QCS · single choice
The respiratory bud (tracheobronchial diverticulum) develops from:
Explanation
The lower respiratory system derives from a ventral diverticulum of the foregut (endodermis); the endoderm gives the epithelium, the splanchnic mesoderm the connective tissue, the muscle and the cartilage.
Question 40 / 89
QCS · single choice
An arteriovenous anastomosis allows:
Explanation
Arteriovenous anastomoses cause arteriole and venule to communicate directly by short-circuiting the capillary bed; they are involved in particular in thermoregulation.
Question 41 / 89
QCS · single choice
The cardiac nodal tissue is made up of:
Explanation
The nodal tissue is made of modified cardiomyocytes (nodal cells and conduction fibers) specialized in the genesis and propagation of the impulse.
Question 42 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Concerning the arterial wall, which propositions are correct?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: the vascular wall includes intima, media and adventitia; the large elastic arteries (aorta) have a media rich in elastin, the muscular arteries a media rich in smooth muscle. D is false: the intima is the innermost tunic, the outermost adventitia.
Question 43 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Regarding blood capillaries, which statements are correct?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: the capillary is made of an endothelium resting on a basal lamina (sometimes with pericytes), available in continuous, fenestrated and discontinuous types, and represents the site of exchanges. D is false: capillaries do not have a thick muscular media.
Question 44 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Concerning the wall of the trachea and bronchi, which propositions are correct?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: the trachea has incomplete cartilaginous rings closed posteriorly by the tracheal muscle; the bronchi retain cartilage in plates. D is false: bronchioles are precisely defined by the absence of cartilage.
Question 45 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Concerning alveolar pneumocytes, which propositions are correct?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: type I pneumocytes, very flattened, form the exchange surface; type II pneumocytes produce surfactant and serve as stem cells regenerating type I. D is false: it is pneumocytes II, not I, which secrete surfactant.
Question 46 / 89
Open question
Describe the histological constitution of the alveolar-capillary barrier.
Explanation
The alveolar-capillary barrier (air-blood barrier) is extremely thin to facilitate the diffusion of gases. It is made up, from the alveolus towards the capillary, of: the surfactant film; type I pneumocyte (flattened cytoplasm); the basal lamina of the pneumocyte; possibly a fine connective interstice (fused in places); the basal lamina of the capillary endothelium; and the capillary endothelial cell. It is through this barrier that O2 and CO2 diffuse between the alveolar air and the blood.
Question 47 / 89
Physiology
QCS · single choice
What is the dominant physiological pacemaker of the heart?
Explanation
The sinus node has the highest automatic frequency and imposes its rhythm on the entire heart: it is the dominant pacemaker.
Question 48 / 89
QCS · single choice
On the electrocardiogram, the P wave corresponds to:
Explanation
The P wave reflects the depolarization of the atria; the QRS complex ventricular depolarization and the T wave ventricular repolarization.
Question 49 / 89
QCS · single choice
The phase during which the ventricles fill with blood corresponds to:
Explanation
Ventricular filling occurs during ventricular diastole (relaxation), supplemented by atrial systole at end of diastole.
Question 50 / 89
QCS · single choice
Cardiac output is defined by the relationship:
Explanation
Cardiac output (L/min) is the product of heart rate (bpm) and stroke volume (mL).
Question 51 / 89
QCS · single choice
Average arterial pressure can be approximated by:
Explanation
As diastole lasts longer, MAP is estimated by PAd + 1/3 of the pulse pressure (PAs − PAd).
Question 52 / 89
QCS · single choice
Coronary perfusion of the left ventricle occurs essentially during:
Explanation
During systole, intramyocardial compression interferes with left coronary flow; perfusion of the left ventricle is therefore mainly diastolic.
Question 53 / 89
QCS · single choice
The low pressure system (venous side and pulmonary capillary) mainly plays a role of:
Explanation
The low pressure system (veins, atria, pulmonary circulation) contains most of the blood volume and acts as a capacitive reservoir modulating venous return.
Question 54 / 89
QCS · single choice
Among the factors favoring venous return, we find:
Explanation
Venous return is favored by the muscular pump (contractions of skeletal muscles with anti-reflux valves), the respiratory pump and venous tone.
Question 55 / 89
QCS · single choice
During resting inspiration:
Explanation
Inspiration is active: contraction of the diaphragm increases thoracic volume, lowering alveolar pressure below atmospheric, which creates the incoming air gradient.
Question 56 / 89
QCS · single choice
Alveolar ventilation corresponds to:
Explanation
Only the fraction of air which reaches the alveoli participates in the exchanges: alveolar ventilation = minute ventilation − ventilation of the dead space.
Question 57 / 89
QCS · single choice
The passage of O2 from the alveolus to the blood is done by:
Explanation
The gases cross the alveolar-capillary barrier by passive diffusion, from the zone of high partial pressure towards the zone of lower pressure (O2: alveolus → blood; CO2: blood → alveolus).
Question 58 / 89
QCS · single choice
The overall ventilation/perfusion ratio (VA/Q) of the lung is on average close to:
Explanation
At rest, alveolar ventilation (~4 L/min) and perfusion (~5 L/min) give an average VA/Q ratio close to 0.8, with regional peak/base variations.
Question 59 / 89
QCS · single choice
What pigment ensures the transport of oxygen in the blood?
Explanation
Hemoglobin, contained in red blood cells, reversibly fixes oxygen and ensures its transport; each molecule can bind up to four O2.
Question 60 / 89
QCS · single choice
Compared to systemic circulation, pulmonary circulation is a regime:
Explanation
The pulmonary circulation operates at low pressure and low resistance, while receiving the full right cardiac output (equal to systemic flow).
Question 61 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Concerning the action potential of the contractile myocardial cell, which propositions are correct?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: phase 0 by incoming sodium current, plateau (phase 2) by incoming calcium current balancing the potassium output, repolarization (phase 3) by K+ output. D is wrong: the plateau depends on calcium, not chlorine.
Question 62 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Regarding heart sounds, which statements are correct?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: B1 (mitral and tricuspid closure) opens systole, B2 (aortic and pulmonary closure) marks the start of diastole. D is false: B2 corresponds to sigmoid closure, not to the opening of the A-V valves.
Question 63 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Regarding the short-term regulation of blood pressure, which propositions are correct?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: the baroreflex, starting from the carotid and aortic baro-receptors, quickly (seconds) corrects the pressure by sympathetic/parasympathetic modulation. D is false: the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is involved in medium and long-term regulation, not immediate.
Question 64 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Concerning lung volumes and capacities, which propositions are accurate?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: the tidal volume is mobilized at rest; vital capacity = VC + VRI + ERV; the residual volume cannot be expelled and escapes simple spirometry. D is false: vital capacity does not include residual volume (total lung capacity includes it).
Question 65 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Concerning the transport of gases in the blood, which propositions are correct?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: O2 is mainly fixed on hemoglobin (oxyhemoglobin), the HbO2 curve is sigmoidal, and CO2 travels mainly in the form of bicarbonates (and carbamine). D is false: the fraction of O2 dissolved in the plasma is very low.
Question 66 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Regarding hemostasis, which propositions are correct?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: primary hemostasis (vessel + platelets) forms the white thrombus, coagulation transforms fibrinogen into fibrin consolidating the clot, and fibrinolysis dissolves it secondarily. D is false: fibrin is produced by coagulation, not primary hemostasis.
Question 67 / 89
Open question
Name the main determinants of stroke volume.
Explanation
The stroke volume depends on three major determinants: preload (ventricular filling, end-diastolic volume, according to the Frank-Starling law: the more the ventricle is filled, the more the ejection force increases), contractility (inotropism, state of the myocardial fiber, increased by sympathetic stimulation) and afterload (resistance to ejection, essentially aortic pressure and peripheral resistance; its increase tends to reduce the ejected volume).
Question 68 / 89
Open question
Explain how PaCO2 regulates ventilation.
Explanation
PaCO2 is the main stimulus for respiratory regulation. An increase in PaCO2 (hypercapnia) increases the production of H+, particularly in the cerebrospinal fluid after diffusion of CO2 and hydration with carbonic acid. The central chemoreceptors (spinal bulb) are sensitive to this variation in pH/CO2, and the peripheral chemoreceptors (carotid and aortic corpuscles) contribute to it. The response is stimulation of the bulbo-protuberantial respiratory centers, increasing ventilatory frequency and amplitude to eliminate CO2 and return PaCO2 to normal. Conversely, hypocapnia reduces ventilation.
Question 69 / 89
Biophysics
QCS · single choice
The basic hemodynamic relationship linking flow, pressure and resistance is written:
Explanation
By analogy with Ohm's law, the flow rate Q = ΔP / R: the flow rate is proportional to the pressure difference and inversely proportional to the resistance.
Question 70 / 89
QCS · single choice
The Reynolds number makes it possible to predict:
Explanation
The Reynolds number characterizes the flow regime: low, the flow is laminar; beyond a critical value, it becomes turbulent (source of blasts).
Question 71 / 89
QCS · single choice
Blood is a fluid:
Explanation
Blood is a non-Newtonian fluid: its viscosity depends in particular on the hematocrit and the shear rate; it is greater than that of water.
Question 72 / 89
QCS · single choice
From a biophysical point of view, the main effect of alveolar surfactant is:
Explanation
The surfactant lowers the surface tension at the air-liquid interface, reduces the work of breathing and prevents the collapse of small alveoli (effect on the Laplace equation).
Question 73 / 89
QCS · single choice
The compliance of an elastic system (lung, vessel) is defined by:
Explanation
Compliance C = ΔV/ΔP measures distensibility: high compliance means that a small variation in pressure results in a large variation in volume.
Question 74 / 89
QCS · single choice
In a liquid at rest, the hydrostatic pressure at a point:
Explanation
The hydrostatic pressure increases linearly with depth according to P = ρgh; this explains in particular the effect of gravity on venous pressures depending on position.
Question 75 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
According to Poiseuille's law, the resistance to the flow of a liquid in a tube depends on:
Explanation
A, B and C are exact: R = 8ηL / (πr⁴), so the resistance increases with length and viscosity and decreases very strongly with radius (power 4). D is false: color has no physical effect.
Question 76 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Concerning Laplace's law applied to cardio-respiratory structures, which propositions are accurate?
Explanation
A, B and C are exact: Laplace's law (P = 2T/r for a sphere) links pressure, tension and radius; it explains the constraint of the ventricular wall and the tendency of the small alveoli to collapse, stabilized by the surfactant. D is false: the pressure depends precisely on the radius.
Question 77 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Concerning the diffusion of gases according to Fick's law, which propositions are correct?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: Fick's law states that diffusive flux increases with surface area and partial pressure gradient, and decreases with membrane thickness. D is false: the flow depends on the exchange surface.
Question 78 / 89
Open question
Explain why a small variation in vascular radius has a major effect on flow, using Poiseuille's law.
Explanation
Poiseuille's law expresses the flow rate Q = ΔP·π·r⁴ / (8·η·L). The radius intervenes to the power of 4, unlike the other factors which are linear. Therefore, if the radius is divided by 2, the flow rate (at constant pressure) is divided by 2⁴ = 16; if it doubles, the flow rate is multiplied by 16. This is why vasomotion (vasoconstriction/vasodilation of the arterioles, which hardly changes the radius) constitutes the most powerful mechanism for adjusting the flow rate and peripheral resistance, much more effective than a variation in pressure or viscosity.
Question 79 / 89
Open question
Describe the Starling equilibrium governing fluid exchange at the capillary level.
Explanation
Water movements through the capillary wall result from the balance between hydrostatic and oncotic pressures (Starling's law). At the arteriolar tip, high capillary hydrostatic pressure exceeds the oncotic pressure of plasma proteins, which pushes fluid toward the interstitium (filtration). At the venular end, hydrostatic pressure has fallen and plasma oncotic pressure prevails, drawing fluid toward the capillary (reabsorption). The slight excess filtration is drained by the lymphatic system. An imbalance (hydrostatic hyperpressure or drop in oncotics) promotes edema.
Question 80 / 89
First aid
QCS · single choice
The first action of the first aid worker at the scene of an accident is to:
Explanation
Protection aims to eliminate or remove the danger to avoid further accidents, by ensuring the safety of the rescuer, the victim and witnesses, before any other action.
Question 81 / 89
QCS · single choice
When alerting emergency services, it is essential to specify:
Explanation
An effective alert message indicates the exact location, the nature of the situation, the number and condition of victims, and must not be interrupted before the regulator's agreement.
Question 82 / 89
QCS · single choice
Cardiorespiratory arrest is recognized in adults by:
Explanation
Faced with an unconscious person who is not breathing normally (absence of breathing or gasps), we make the diagnosis of cardio-respiratory arrest and we begin resuscitation.
Question 83 / 89
QCS · single choice
The purpose of the automated external defibrillator (AED) is to:
Explanation
The AED automatically analyzes the rhythm and indicates/delivers an electric shock in the event of a shockable rhythm (ventricular fibrillation, pulseless ventricular tachycardia), increasing the chance of survival.
Question 84 / 89
QCS · single choice
During the rhythm analysis by the AED, the rescuer must:
Explanation
During the analysis and delivery of the shock, no one must touch the victim so as not to distort the analysis or risk being electrified.
Question 85 / 89
QCS · single choice
Faced with partial obstruction of the airways where the victim is coughing effectively, it is necessary:
Explanation
As long as the cough is effective (partial obstruction), we do not intervene mechanically: we encourage the cough and we monitor closely, ready to act if the obstruction becomes complete.
Question 86 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
The rescuer's behavior plan when dealing with a victim includes:
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: the action to be taken follows the sequence Protect – Examine – Alert – Rescue. D is false: leaving the scene without taking action is contrary to the role of the first aider.
Question 87 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Concerning cardiopulmonary resuscitation in adults, which proposals are correct?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: the center of the thorax is compressed, at 100-120/min, in a 30:2 cycle in adults. D is wrong: compressions must be deep (5-6 cm) and forceful, not superficial.
Question 88 / 89
MCQ · multiple choice
Faced with serious and complete obstruction of the airways in conscious adults, we perform:
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: faced with a total obstruction, alternate 5 back slaps and 5 abdominal compressions (Heimlich) until the obstruction is cleared. D is false: inaction exposes you to asphyxiation.
Question 89 / 89
Open question
List the main signs suggesting respiratory distress in a victim.
Explanation
Respiratory distress is manifested by: difficulty breathing (dyspnea), an abnormal increase or slowdown in respiratory rate, noisy or wheezing breathing, the inability to speak in complete sentences, the use of accessory respiratory muscles (drawing), sweating, agitation or anxiety, and signs of poor oxygenation such as cyanosis (bluish discoloration of the lips and extremities). Faced with these signs, the rescuer places the victim in the position where they breathe best (often sitting), reassures them, loosens their clothing and alerts the emergency services.