Question 1 / 60
QCS · single choice
What is the approximate thickness of the plasma membrane observed in thin section under an electron microscope?
Explanation
Under an electron microscope (thin section technique with osmium tetroxide fixation), the plasma membrane appears trilamellar, with a thickness of approximately 75 Å, formed of two dark layers separated by a light layer.
Question 2 / 60
QCS · single choice
What is the lipid composition of the erythrocyte membrane?
Explanation
Within the plasma membrane, membrane lipids are represented by 55% phospholipids, 25% cholesterol and 20% glycolipids.
Question 3 / 60
QCS · single choice
Membrane cholesterol is present exclusively in:
Explanation
Cholesterol is only present in the membranes of animal cells; it is absent from plant cells and bacteria.
Question 4 / 60
QCS · single choice
What is the effect of cholesterol on plasma membrane fluidity?
Explanation
Cholesterol reinforces the strength of the membrane because by placing itself between the phospholipid molecules, it immobilizes neighboring hydrocarbon chains, making the membrane more rigid.
Question 5 / 60
QCS · single choice
Glycophorin, an erythrocyte protein, belongs to which category of membrane proteins?
Explanation
Glycophorin is a monotopic intrinsic transmembrane protein (making a single pass through the lipid bilayer), unlike band 3 which is polytopic.
Question 6 / 60
QCS · single choice
The fluid mosaic model was proposed in 1972 by:
Explanation
Singer and Nicholson proposed in 1972 a model of molecular architecture which defines the membrane as a fluid and asymmetric mosaic.
Question 7 / 60
QCS · single choice
Which enzyme ensures the transverse movement (flip-flop) of phospholipids from one layer of the membrane to the other?
Explanation
Cells have enzymes called flippases that actively move certain phospholipids from one leaflet to another, playing a role in membrane lipid asymmetry.
Question 8 / 60
QCS · single choice
How many membranes does the mitochondria have?
Explanation
Mitochondria have two membranes: the outer membrane and the inner membrane, which separates the mitochondrial matrix from the intermembrane space.
Question 9 / 60
QCS · single choice
Mitochondrial cristae are invaginations of:
Explanation
The inner membrane forms invaginations in the mitochondrial matrix called cristae, which are the locus of phosphorylative oxidation reactions and ATP synthesis.
Question 10/60
QCS · single choice
What proportion of proteins does the inner mitochondrial membrane contain?
Explanation
The inner membrane is very rich in proteins: it is composed of 80% proteins and 20% lipids, and contains numerous transporters, enzymatic protein complexes and TIM translocases.
Question 11 / 60
QCS · single choice
Human mitochondrial DNA codes for how many proteins?
Explanation
Mitochondrial DNA contains 37 genes that encode 13 proteins (subunits of oxidative phosphorylation complexes), 22 transfer RNAs and 2 ribosomal RNAs.
Question 12 / 60
QCS · single choice
Which inner membrane mitochondrial enzyme is involved in the synthesis of steroid hormones?
Explanation
The internal membrane of the mitochondria carries a family of transmembrane enzymes, the cytochromes P450, whose active site is immersed in the matrix and which hydroxylate cholesterol to pregnenolone, the initial step in steroid synthesis.
Question 13 / 60
QCS · single choice
What are the three types of fibers constituting the cytoskeleton of a eukaryotic cell?
Explanation
The cytoskeleton has three types of fibers: microfilaments (actin, ~7 nm), microtubules (~25 nm) and intermediate filaments (~8-10 nm).
Question 14 / 60
QCS · single choice
What is the approximate diameter of actin microfilaments?
Explanation
Microfilaments are long fibers with a diameter of about 7 nanometers, composed of two intertwined protein chains of globular actin.
Question 15 / 60
QCS · single choice
Microtubules are made up of how many protofilaments arranged in a ring?
Explanation
Microtubules are hollow tubes with a diameter of approximately 25 nm, formed of 13 protein protofilaments arranged in a crown, each protofilament being composed of α and β tubulin dimers.
Question 16 / 60
QCS · single choice
Which intermediate filament is characteristic of epithelial cells?
Explanation
Keratin is a class of intermediate filaments found in epithelial cells (cells lining organs and cavities in the body) as well as associated structures such as hair and nails.
Question 17 / 60
QCS · single choice
How many microtubule triplets is each centriole made up of?
Explanation
Each centriole is composed of nine triplets of microtubules. Centrioles occur in pairs, usually arranged at right angles to each other, close to the nucleus.
Question 18 / 60
QCS · single choice
Which motor protein ensures the transport of vesicles from the endoplasmic reticulum to the cell periphery along microtubules?
Explanation
The ER membrane protein kinectin attaches vesicles to the motor protein kinesin, which drives the vesicle along microtubules toward the periphery of the cell, using ATP as an energy source.
Question 19 / 60
QCS · single choice
What is the distinctive structural feature of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (REG)?
Explanation
The REG is a set of flattened bags communicating with each other, whose internal reticular face is always smooth but whose cytosolic external face is lined with ribosomes, playing a role in proteosynthesis and glycosylation.
Question 20/60
QCS · single choice
What is the main role of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)?
Explanation
The REL is formed by a network of small vesicles and tubules without ribosomes; it plays a role in the synthesis of lipids and steroid hormones.
Question 21 / 60
QCS · single choice
Protein N-glycosylation begins in which organelle?
Explanation
N-glycosylation begins in the REG by transferring a bulk oligosaccharide (via dolichol) to the asparagine of the protein being synthesized. It continues and is completed in the Golgi apparatus.
Question 22 / 60
QCS · single choice
The labeling of lysosomal hydrolases in the Golgi apparatus involves which specific marker?
Explanation
Labeling of lysosomal hydrolases occurs in cis saccules of the Golgi apparatus by phosphorylation of mannose (addition of a phosphate on the 6th carbon of a mannose), creating the mannose-6-phosphate signal recognized by specific receptors at the trans-Golgi network.
Question 23 / 60
QCS · single choice
What is the main role of nuclear pores?
Explanation
Nuclear pores are protein complexes organized in the form of channels whose role is to ensure molecular exchanges between the cytoplasm and the nucleoplasm (RNA, enzymes, nucleotides, etc.).
Question 24/60
QCS · single choice
What is the main function of the nucleolus?
Explanation
The nucleolus is a non-membrane-limited nuclear compartment responsible for the synthesis of ribosomal RNAs (rRNAs) and the assembly of ribosomal subunits.
Question 25/60
QCS · single choice
Euchromatin corresponds to:
Explanation
Euchromatin is the decondensed form of chromatin during interphase (very weakly colored); it corresponds to active areas of DNA with strong gene transcription.
Question 26 / 60
QCS · single choice
During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?
Explanation
The S phase (Synthesis) is the phase during which DNA replication takes place. The amount of nuclear DNA is doubled at the end of this phase.
Question 27 / 60
QCS · single choice
During which phase of mitosis are the chromosomes aligned on the equator of the cell?
Explanation
During metaphase, the genetic material is condensed as much as possible in the form of chromosomes, aligned on the equator of the cell (middle part). This is the ideal phase for the study of karyotype.
Question 28 / 60
QCS · single choice
The G0 phase of the cell cycle is defined as:
Explanation
The G0 phase is a phase of “mitotic quiescence” or “mitotic rest” which does not belong to the classic phases of the cell cycle; the cell enters a non-proliferative resting state and stops its multiplication activity.
Question 29 / 60
QCS · single choice
Which biologist discovered the Golgi apparatus (Nobel Prize 1906)?
Explanation
The discovery of the Golgi apparatus is due to the Italian biologist Camillo Golgi, Nobel Prize winner in 1906.
Question 30/60
QCS · single choice
Which side of the Golgi apparatus is in the vicinity of the endoplasmic reticulum and receives the transitional vesicles?
Explanation
The cis face (external face) is in the vicinity of the RE; it is at this level that the ER transition vesicles bud to fuse with the Golgi saccules. The trans side is the opposite and gives rise to secretory vesicles towards lysosomes or the cell surface.
Question 31 / 60
QCS · single choice
Which cells in the body lack a nucleus?
Explanation
The nucleus is present in all cells of the body with the exception of red blood cells (red blood cells), keratinocytes (cells of the surface layer of the skin) and thrombocytes (platelets).
Question 32 / 60
QCS · single choice
What is the shape of the nucleus in polynuclear neutrophils?
Explanation
The shape of the nucleus differs depending on the cell type: spherical in cubic epithelial cells, ovoid in smooth muscle cells, and polylobed in polynuclear cells.
Question 33 / 60
QCS · single choice
With what other organelle do mitochondria share the role of main reservoir of intracellular calcium?
Explanation
Mitochondria, along with the smooth endoplasmic reticulum, are the main reservoir of intracellular calcium; they are capable of capturing calcium, storing it in the matrix, then releasing it into the cytosol via ion channels in the inner membrane.
Question 34 / 60
QCS · single choice
What role does the signal peptide play during cotranslational protein synthesis in the REG?
Explanation
The signal peptide is an N-terminal hydrophobic residue that acts as a transfer initiation signal: it is recognized by the signal recognition particle (SRP), which directs the ribosome to the ER membrane where the protein is co-translationally translocated into the ER lumen.
Question 35/60
QCS · single choice
What is the proportion of proteins in the erythrocyte plasma membrane?
Explanation
The plasma membrane of red blood cells is composed of 40% lipids, 52% proteins and 8% carbohydrates.
Question 36 / 60
QCS · single choice
The genes encoding ribosomal RNAs (rRNAs) are distributed over how many pairs of chromosomes in the human diploid genome?
Explanation
The human diploid genome contains approximately 200 identical copies of the gene coding for the 3 nucleolar rRNAs, distributed over the short arms of 5 pairs of acrocentric chromosomes: chromosomes 13, 14, 15, 21 and 22. Each chromosome includes 20 copies of these genes.
Question 37 / 60
QCS · single choice
The glycocalyx (cell-coat) is located:
Explanation
The dense outer layer of the plasma membrane is lined with a thin glycoprotein film (glycocalyx or cell-coat) whose fibrils are perpendicular to the membrane. The cell-coat is made up of felting of carbohydrate fibrils.
Question 38 / 60
QCS · single choice
The GPI (glycosyl-phosphatidylinositol) anchoring of an integrated protein is done on which amino acid?
Explanation
Glypiation (GPI anchoring) takes place on an amino acid in the C-terminal position of the integrated protein anchored by a lipid.
Question 39 / 60
QCS · single choice
Which component important for phosphorylation is found in the mitochondrial intermembrane space?
Explanation
The inter-membrane space contains H+ protons playing an important role in phosphorylation, cytochrome C molecules and molecules generally less than 10 kDa.
Question 40/60
QCS · single choice
The intermediate filaments of nerve cells are called:
Explanation
The intermediate filaments of nerve cells are called neurofilaments. Vimentin is present in many non-epithelial cells, and keratin in epithelial cells.
Question 41 / 60
MCQ · multiple choice
Which of the following statements about the chemical composition of the plasma membrane are correct?
Explanation
A, C and D are correct. Phospholipids are amphiphilic (hydrophilic head, hydrophobic tail). Carbohydrates impart a negative charge via sialic acid. Membrane proteins have diverse functions (receptors, transporters, enzymes, adhesion molecules, messengers). Cholesterol is ABSENT from bacteria (B is false).
Question 42 / 60
MCQ · multiple choice
Which of the following physiological roles are performed by the mitochondria?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct. The mitochondrion synthesizes ATP via oxidative phosphorylation, cooperates with the REL for the synthesis of steroid hormones (via cytochromes P450), and stores intracellular calcium. The synthesis of immunoglobulins (D) is carried out by plasma cells via ribosomes and the REG.
Question 43 / 60
MCQ · multiple choice
What functions are carried out by the cytoskeleton in the eukaryotic cell?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct. The cytoskeleton maintains cell shape and anchors organelles; microtubules serve as rails for vesicular transport; the shortening of microtubules during mitosis allows chromosome migration. The synthesis of ribosomal proteins (D) is ensured by the nucleus (gene transcription) and cytoplasmic ribosomes.
Question 44 / 60
MCQ · multiple choice
Which of the following functions are attributed to the Golgi apparatus?
Explanation
A, B and D are correct. The Golgi apparatus ensures the continuation of N-glycosylation, O-glycosylation (binding on serine/threonine in the median and trans saccules) and the labeling of lysosomal hydrolases by Man-6P in the cis saccules. Mitochondrial DNA replication (C) takes place in the mitochondrial matrix.
Question 45/60
MCQ · multiple choice
Regarding heterochromatin, which statements are correct?
Explanation
A, B and D are correct. Heterochromatin is the condensed form of chromatin (D). It is subdivided into: constitutive (repetitive DNA never transcribed, centromeres and telomeres - A) and facultative (repressed genes that can be active in other cell types - B). Proposition C describes euchromatin, not heterochromatin.
Question 46 / 60
MCQ · multiple choice
When importing cytosolic proteins into the mitochondria, what steps are involved?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct: Hsp70 unfolds the protein, the outer membrane receptor recognizes the targeting sequence, and translocation takes place via TOM (outer membrane) then TIM (inner membrane). The protein is then matured by cleavage of the targeting sequence and folding by Hsp60. Proposition D is false: these proteins are synthesized in the cytosol under the control of the nuclear genome.
Question 47 / 60
MCQ · multiple choice
What phases constitute interphase of the cell cycle?
Explanation
The interphase brings together phases G1, S and G2. M phase (mitosis) is the actual cell division phase and is not part of interphase.
Question 48 / 60
MCQ · multiple choice
Which of the following lipid modifications allowing the anchoring of proteins integrated into the membrane are cited in the course?
Explanation
A, B and C correspond to the modifications mentioned in the course: myristoylation, palmitylation and glypiation (GPI). Isoprenylation (farnesyl or geranylgeranyl) is also mentioned. Ubiquitination (D) is a mark for degradation by the proteasome, not a membrane anchor.
Question 49 / 60
MCQ · multiple choice
During co-translational protein synthesis in the REG, which steps are correct?
Explanation
A, B and C are correct. PRS recognizes the signal peptide (A), the complex binds to the ER membrane anchor protein (B), and then a translocation pore opens (C). Proposition D is false: the signal peptide is cut by peptidases and degraded by ER proteases after translocation.
Question 50/60
MCQ · multiple choice
Which of the following characteristics corresponds to the telophase of mitosis?
Explanation
A, B and C correspond to telophase: equatorial constriction giving two daughter cells (cytodieresis), decondensation of the chromatin and reformation of the nuclear envelope. Proposition D describes the metaphase.
Question 51 / 60
Open question
Describe the ultrastructural structure of the plasma membrane and list its main chemical constituents with their proportions.
Explanation
The answer must mention the trilamellar aspect to the ME, the proportions of the constituents and the two categories of membrane proteins.
Question 52 / 60
Open question
Describe the structural organization of the mitochondria, specifying the compartments and their characteristics.
Explanation
The answer should describe the two membranes, their respective characteristics, the ridges and the contents of the matrix.
Question 53 / 60
Open question
Compare the three components of the cytoskeleton in terms of diameter, constituent proteins, and major functions.
Explanation
The answer must compare the 3 types, mentioning diameter, proteins and distinctive functions for each.
Question 54 / 60
Open question
Describe the journey of a secreted protein from its synthesis to its extracellular secretion.
Explanation
The answer should mention the key steps of vesicular trafficking from the REG to the plasma membrane.
Question 55/60
Open question
Describe the four phases of mitosis and specify the chromosomal events characteristic of each phase.
Explanation
The answer must describe the 4 phases in order with the precise chromosomal events of each.
Question 56 / 60
Open question
Explain the role of the mitochondrial intermembrane space and cristae in ATP production.
Explanation
The answer must link structure (peaks, H+ gradient) to function (ATP synthesis by ATP synthase).
Question 57 / 60
Open question
Distinguish euchromatin from heterochromatin by specifying their condensation state and their transcriptional activity.
Explanation
The answer must distinguish the two types of chromatin by their condensation and transcriptional activity, and subdivide heterochromatin.
Question 58 / 60
Open question
Explain Singer and Nicholson's (1972) fluid mosaic model and its implications for membrane lipid movements.
Explanation
The answer should explain the concept of membrane fluidity, types of lipid movements and the role of flippases.
Question 59 / 60
Open question
Describe the mechanism for targeting acid hydrolases to lysosomes via the Golgi apparatus.
Explanation
The answer should describe mannose phosphorylation, the role of Man-6P receptors, clathrin vesicles and lysosomal maturation.
Question 60/60
Open question
Describe the interphase of the cell cycle, specifying the characteristics of each subphase.
Explanation
The answer should describe the 3 phases of interphase with their distinctive characteristics.