MedAcademy QSM/QCS

Question 1 QCS

In the doctor-patient encounter, non-verbal communication mainly includes:

A The strict content of the words spoken

B Posture, facial expression and gaze

C Medication prescription

D The written report

Question 2 QCS

Active listening to the patient is mainly characterized by:

A Frequent interruption to save time

B Patient-centered attention with reformulation

C The immediate judgment of the remarks

D Exclusive note-taking without looking

Question 3 QCS

A particular difficulty of the psychiatric interview is:

A The total absence of relational issues

B Management of transference and patient anxiety

C The impossibility of establishing a diagnosis

D Total standardization of questions

Question 4 QCS

Stress is defined as:

A A chronic psychiatric illness

B A non-specific response from the body to any request for adaptation

C An exclusively imaginary disorder

D A state that is always pathological

Question 5 QCS

Personality can be defined as:

A The transitory set of moods of the moment

B The lasting and structured organization of an individual's psychological traits

C A strict synonym for intelligence

D A mental disorder

Question 6 QCS

The placebo effect in prescribing psychology illustrates:

A The absence of influence of the doctor-patient relationship

B The psychological role of the act of prescribing

C A therapeutic fraud

D An absolute contraindication

Question 7 QCS

The affective-emotional component of pain corresponds to:

A The location and physical intensity of the stimulus

B The unpleasant experience and suffering associated with pain

C Peripheral nerve transmission

D The reflex motor response

Question 8 QCS

The mental status examination in psychiatry includes:

A Blood pressure measurement only

B Assessment of mood, thinking and perceptions

C Only a biological assessment

D Exclusively brain imaging

Question 9 QCM

Regarding the announcement of a serious illness, which propositions are accurate?

A It must be done in a calm and suitable place.

B Information must be progressive and adapted to the patient

C You always have to say everything at once

D Support and subsequent availability are necessary

Question 10 QCM

Among the characteristics of psychosomatic disorders:

A Presence of real organic lesions or dysfunctions

B Promoting role of psychological factors and stress

C Total absence of somatic complaints

D Possibility of cardiovascular or digestive damage

Question 11 QCM

What psychological factors can modulate pain perception?

A Anxiety and fear

B The emotional context and the meaning given to pain

C The size of the consultation room

D Attention and previous experiences

Question 12 TEXT

List the essential principles of a good announcement of a serious illness.

Question 13 TEXT

What are the objectives of communication with the patient and his family?

Question 14 QCS

A symptom is defined as:

A An objective sign noted by the doctor

B A subjective manifestation felt and reported by the patient

C The result of an additional examination

D A grouping of signs

Question 15 QCS

A syndrome corresponds to:

A A single isolated symptom

B A set of signs and symptoms occurring together

C A disease with a single known etiology

D A paraclinical examination

Question 16 QCS

The times of the clinical examination classically take place in the order:

A Palpation, inspection, percussion, auscultation

B Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation

C Auscultation, percussion, palpation, inspection

D Percussion, auscultation, inspection, palpation

Question 17 QCS

Hypothetico-deductive reasoning in clinical practice consists of:

A Prescribe all possible tests immediately

B Formulate hypotheses then confirm or refute them with targeted data

C Make the diagnosis without questioning

D Rely on imagery alone

Question 18 QCS

Fever in adults is usually defined by a core temperature greater than:

A 37.0°C

B 37.2°C in the morning / 37.8°C in the evening (threshold ≈ 38°C)

C 36.5°C

D 35.5°C

Question 19 QCS

Weight loss is considered significant when it exceeds approximately:

A 1% of weight in 6 months

B 5% of body weight in 6 months

C 0.5% of weight in 1 year

D 30% of weight in 1 month

Question 20 QCS

A persistent skin fold and orthostatic hypotension mainly suggest:

A Overall hyperhydration

B Extracellular dehydration

C Hydrosodium retention

D Generalized edema

Question 21 QCS

A generalized, white, soft and painless swelling edema suggests:

A Local inflammatory edema

B Edema due to salt and water retention

C Subcutaneous emphysema

D A hematoma

Question 22 QCS

The main role of complementary examinations in the clinical process is to:

A Replace questioning and physical examination

B Confirm, refute or clarify clinical hypotheses

C Be prescribed systematically and exhaustively

D Establish the diagnosis alone without a clinic

Question 23 QCS

Anterior thoracic landmarks include:

A The midclavicular line

B The cutaneous Langer line

C The single epigastric line

D The anterior scapular line

Question 24 QCM

Medical observation usually includes:

A The interrogation (history)

B Physical examination

C Diagnostic hypotheses and actions to take

D Prescription prescription only

Question 25 QCM

Regarding fever, which statements are correct?

A It results from a shift in the hypothalamic set point

B Shivering often accompanies thermal ascent

C It is always of infectious origin

D Sweating often accompanies defervescence

Question 26 QCM

Among the basic primary lesions of the skin:

A The macule

B The papule

C The scar

D The gallbladder

Question 27 TEXT

What are the main elements collected during the medical history (history)?

Question 28 TEXT

Define and differentiate: sign, symptom and syndrome.

Question 29 QCS

Among the major functional cardiac signs, we note:

A Isolated chronic productive cough

B Exertional dyspnea, chest pain and palpitations

C Dysphonia

D Diarrhea

Question 30 QCS

The NYHA classification assesses:

A The severity of a heart murmur

B The functional impact of exertional dyspnea

C The coronary caliber

D Heart rate on the ECG

Question 31 QCS

The pain of typical angina is classically:

A Retrosternal, constrictive, radiating to the left arm and jaw

B Latero-thoracic stabbing increased on inspiration

C Permanent pulsatile epigastric

D Punctiform reproducible on palpation

Question 32 QCS

Syncope is defined by:

A Brief loss of consciousness with complete spontaneous recovery

B A permanent motor deficit

C Prolonged confusion without loss of consciousness

D Isolated chest pain

Question 33 QCS

The first heart sound (B1) corresponds to:

A Closure of the aortic and pulmonary sigmoid valves

B Closure of the atrioventricular valves (mitral and tricuspid)

C Opening of the mitral valve

D Rapid ventricular filling

Question 34 QCS

A systolic murmur at the aortic focus radiating to the carotids first suggests:

A Aortic narrowing

B Isolated mitral regurgitation

C Aortic insufficiency

D Mitral stenosis

Question 35 QCS

An abolished femoral pulse with abolition of the distal pulses of the lower limb suggests:

A Venous insufficiency

B Arteriopathy/arterial obstruction of the limb

C Lymphatic edema

D A simple normal variation

Question 36 QCS

According to the usual thresholds, hypertension in adults in the office is defined by blood pressure ≥:

A 120/80 mmHg

B 140/90 mmHg

C 160/100 mmHg mandatory

D 100/60 mmHg

Question 37 QCS

On the normal ECG, the P wave corresponds to:

A Atrial depolarization

B Ventricular depolarization

C Ventricular repolarization

D Isolated nodal conduction

Question 38 QCS

Persistent ST segment elevation on the ECG indicates:

A An ST+ SCA (infarction with elevation)

B Chronic constrictive pericarditis

C A benign isolated branch block

D Auricular enlargement

Question 39 QCS

The pain of acute pericarditis is typically:

A Relieved by supine position

B Increased on inspiration and relieved by leaning forward

C Always painless

D Constrictive and calmed by effort

Question 40 QCS

Mitral stenosis is classically reflected on auscultation by:

A An aortic diastolic murmur

B A diastolic roll with burst of B1 at the tip

C An aortic ejection systolic murmur

D A pericardial friction

Question 41 QCS

Acute limb ischemia is classically characterized by 'P' signs including:

A Pain, pallor, absence of pulse, coldness, paresthesias, paralysis

B Heat, redness and inflammatory edema

C Jumping pulse and warm skin

D Painful varicose veins and edema

Question 42 QCS

Deep vein thrombosis of the lower limb typically manifests itself by:

A A cold, pale, pulseless limb

B A painful, hot, enlarged calf with Homans sign

C Intermittent arterial claudication

D An absence of any possible local sign excluded

Question 43 QCS

The clinical signs of right heart failure mainly include:

A Orthopnea and bilateral crackles

B Jugular turgor, hepatomegaly and lower limb edema

C Isolated aortic systolic murmur

D Skin pallor with loss of pulse

Question 44 QCM

What chest pain should suggest a life-threatening emergency?

A Acute coronary syndrome

B Aortic dissection

C Benign reproducible parietal pain

D Pulmonary embolism

Question 45 QCM

Among the added noises that can be heard during cardiac auscultation:

A The gallop (B3, B4)

B The mitral opening click

C The normal gallbladder murmur

D Pericardial friction

Question 46 QCM

Regarding the ECG, which correspondences are exact?

A QRS complex = ventricular depolarization

B T wave = ventricular repolarization

C PR space = atrioventricular conduction

D P wave = ventricular repolarization

Question 47 QCM

Regarding myocardial infarction, which statements are correct?

A Prolonged chest pain not relieved by rest

B Troponin elevation

C Rest always relieves pain within minutes

D Possibility of ST elevation on the ECG

Question 48 QCM

Regarding obliterating arteriopathy of the lower limbs (PAAD), which propositions are correct?

A Intermittent claudication is a warning sign

B Decrease or abolition of distal pulses

C Varicose veins are the pathognomonic sign

D Measuring the systolic pressure index (SPI) is useful

Question 49 TEXT

Name the four foci of cardiac auscultation and their location.

Question 50 TEXT

Mention the main explorations used in cardiology and their interest.

Question 51 QCS

Among the major respiratory functional signs, we note:

A Palpitations and lipothymia

B Dyspnea, cough, expectoration and hemoptysis

C Lower limb edema

D Jugular turgor

Question 52 QCS

Dyspnea is defined as:

A Chest pain on exercise

B An abnormal and painful perception of breathing (shortness of breath)

C A dry nighttime cough

D A spit of blood

Question 53 QCS

Hemoptysis corresponds to:

A A discharge of airy red blood during coughing

B Vomiting blackish blood

C A nosebleed

D Greenish purulent sputum

Question 54 QCS

Vomiting corresponds to:

A A sudden and abundant discharge of pus or fluid through the airways

B Loss of voice due to laryngeal damage

C A spit streaked with blood

D Difficulty swallowing

Question 55 QCS

The pulmonary physical examination follows the order:

A Auscultation, percussion, palpation, inspection

B Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation

C Percussion, inspection, auscultation, palpation

D Palpation, auscultation, inspection, percussion

Question 56 QCS

Dullness on percussion of a pulmonary base most often evokes:

A A pneumothorax

B Pleural fluid effusion

C Distended emphysema

D Air distension

Question 57 QCS

Pleural fluid effusion syndrome classically associates:

A Dullness, abolition of gallbladder murmur and vocal vibrations

B Tympanism and increased vocal vibrations

C Diffuse crackles with normal sound

D Isolated generalized wheezing rales

Question 58 QCS

Systemic pulmonary condensation syndrome (pneumonia) typically includes:

A Dullness, increased vocal vibrations and crackling rattles

B Hypersonority and abolition of vocal vibrations

C Auscultatory silence with eardrum

D Expiratory wheezing isolated

Question 59 QCS

A superior cava syndrome, indicative of a mediastinal syndrome, results in:

A Pilgrim edema, jugular turgor and thoracic collateral circulation

B Isolated lower limb edema

C Dullness of an isolated lung base

D Digital clubbing isolated

Question 60 QCS

In the pulmonological examination, smoking is quantified in:

A Grams per day

B Pack-years

C Liters per minute

D Milliliters per kilo

Question 61 QCM

Regarding expectoration, which statements are correct?

A Purulent sputum suggests bronchopulmonary infection

B Pinkish foamy sputum suggests OAP

C Any sputum is pathognomonic of cancer

D Sputum may be mucous, purulent or hemoptoic

Question 62 QCM

Among the pathological adventitious sounds auscultated in pulmonology:

A The crackling rattles

B The sibilants

C The normal gallbladder murmur

D The snoring rattles

Question 63 QCM

Bronchial syndrome manifests itself in particular by:

A Cough and expectoration

B Bronchial rales (snoring, wheezing)

C Complete and definitive abolition of vocal vibrations

D Possible obstruction of air flow

Question 64 TEXT

List the main explorations used in pulmonology.

Question 65 TEXT

Describe the semiological tripod of large fluid pleural effusion.

Question 66 QCS

Standard radiography is based on the use of:

A Ultrasound

B X-rays (ionizing radiation)

C Magnetic field

D Visible light

Question 67 QCS

On a standard x-ray, the bone appears:

A Black (radio-transparent)

B White (radiopaque)

C Uniform gray

D Unseen

Question 68 QCS

Ultrasound uses as a physical principle:

A X-rays

B Ultrasound reflected by tissues

C An intense magnetic field

D Gamma rays

Question 69 QCS

Which of the following imaging modalities does NOT use ionizing radiation?

A Standard radiography

B Computed tomography (scanner)

C MRI

D Fluoroscopy

Question 70 QCS

Computed tomography (CT/CT) provides:

A Cross-sectional images from X-rays

B A functional isotopic image

C An ultrasound image only

D An image without any reconstruction

Question 71 QCS

In the x-ray tube, x-rays are produced by:

A Nuclear fusion target

B Braking of accelerated electrons on the anode (target)

C Radioactive decay of the filament

D Ultrasound reflection

Question 72 QCS

The aim of radiological semiology is to:

A Describe and interpret normal and pathological images

B Permanently replace the clinical examination

C Establishing vital prognosis without diagnosis

D Measure only the radiation dose

Question 73 QCS

Ultrasound is particularly suitable for exploring:

A Normal aerated lung parenchyma

B Fluid structures and soft tissues

C From the deep bony cortex

D Digestive air

Question 74 QCM

Regarding the basic radiological densities on an x-ray, which are accurate?

A Air is the most radiolucent density (black)

B Metal is the most radiopaque density (white)

C Water and soft tissue are water density (gray)

D Fat is more opaque than bone

Question 75 QCM

Concerning contrast products, which propositions are correct?

A Iodized products are used in scanning

B Gadolinium is used in MRI

C They can cause allergic reactions

D They are still free of renal risk

Question 76 TEXT

List, in increasing order of opacity, the basic radiological densities of a standard radiograph.

Question 77 TEXT

Briefly compare the physical principle of x-ray, ultrasound and MRI.

Question 78 QCS

Good quality standard frontal chest radiography is performed:

A In forced expiration, lying down

B In deep inspiration, standing, facing forward (postero-anterior incidence)

C Systematic lateral decubitus

D Without any quality criteria

Question 79 QCS

The silhouette sign makes it possible to locate an opacity because:

A Two contiguous structures of the same density erase their common limit

B The air always erases the bone contours

C Metal disappears on x-ray

D Fat increases the sharpness of vascular edges

Question 80 QCS

Radiological alveolar syndrome is typically characterized by:

A Blurred opacities confluent with air bronchogram

B Isolated Kerley lines without opacity

C Hyperclarity with pleural line

D Filling of costo-diaphragmatic cul-de-sacs with liquid only

Question 81 QCS

A fluid pleural effusion of moderate abundance is reflected on the x-ray by:

A A sloping opacity filling the costo-diaphragmatic cul-de-sac with concave border line

B Peripheral avascular hyperlucency

C A central air bronchogram

D Bilateral diffuse micronodules

Question 82 QCS

The cardiothoracic index (CTI) on a frontal x-ray is pathological (cardiomegaly) when it is greater than:

A 0,30

B 0,50

C 0.75 required

D 0,90

Question 83 QCS

The radiological air bronchogram corresponds to:

A Aerial bronchi visible within an alveolar opacity

B Peripheral pleural hyperlucency

C Bronchial calcifications

D Thickening of the interlobular septa

Question 84 QCS

Which examination remains the first-line imaging of the respiratory system?

A Chest MRI

B Standard chest x-ray

C Systematic scintigraphy

D Bronchial arteriography

Question 85 QCM

What are the quality criteria for a frontal chest x-ray?

A Shot taken in deep inspiration

B Symmetry (spinous centered between the clavicles)

C Visualization of diaphragmatic domes

D Patient in maximum expiration

Question 86 QCM

Regarding pulmonary atelectasis on radiography, which propositions are correct?

A Systematized retractable opacity

B Attraction of neighboring structures (mediastinum, dome)

C Hyperlucency with distension of the hemithorax

D Reduction in volume of the affected area

Question 87 TEXT

Name the major thoracic radiological syndromes.

Question 88 QCS

The intracellular sector represents approximately, in adults, what proportion of total water?

A About 1/3

B About 2/3

C The whole

D Less than 10%

Question 89 QCS

The main determinant of plasma osmolarity is:

A Potassium

B Sodium

C Calcium

D Bicarbonate

Question 90 QCS

Hyponatremia most often reflects a disorder:

A Potassium balance

B Water balance (relative excess water)

C Calcium metabolism

D Pure acid-base balance

Question 91 QCS

Severe hyperkalemia mainly exposes you to the risk of:

A Serious heart rhythm disturbances

B Isolated high blood pressure

C Pure metabolic alkalosis

D From fever

Question 92 QCS

The main center of thermoregulation is located:

A In the cerebellum

B In the hypothalamus

C In the medulla oblongata only

D In the frontal cortex

Question 93 QCS

Protein-energy malnutrition results in particular in:

A Hypoalbuminemia and muscle wasting

B Rapid weight gain

C Muscular hypertrophy

D Systematic polycythemia

Question 94 QCS

Extracellular hyperhydration results clinically in:

A Edema and weight gain

B A skin fold and intense thirst

C Hypotension due to hypovolemia

D Isolated cellular dehydration

Question 95 QCM

Extracellular dehydration is characterized by:

A Weight loss

B A skin fold and hypotension

C Iso-osmotic loss of water and sodium

D Generalized edema

Question 96 QCM

Concerning the pathophysiology of fever, which propositions are correct?

A Endogenous pyrogens (cytokines) elevate the hypothalamic set point

B Prostaglandins (PGE2) are involved in this mechanism

C Fever corresponds to a failure of thermoregulation like heatstroke

D Shivering increases thermogenesis

Question 97 TEXT

Describe the distribution of total body water between its different compartments.

Question 98 TEXT

Contrast intracellular dehydration and extracellular dehydration.

Question 99 QCS

Cardiac output is the product of:

A Blood pressure by resistance

B Heart rate by stroke volume

C Preload by afterload

D Contractility by respiratory frequency

Question 100 QCS

A compensatory mechanism for chronic heart failure is:

A Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

B Decreased sympathetic tone

C Increased sodium diuresis

D Generalized peripheral vasodilation

Question 101 QCS

The state of shock is defined physiologically by:

A A simple isolated drop in pressure without consequences

B Acute circulatory failure with tissue hypoperfusion

C Malignant high blood pressure

D Isolated bradycardia

Question 102 QCS

Hypovolemic shock mainly results from:

A Heart pump failure

B A decrease in circulating blood volume

C Vasodilation by release of mediators

D Mediastinal compression

Question 103 QCS

Cardiogenic shock is characterized hemodynamically by:

A Collapsed cardiac output with elevated filling pressures

B High cardiac output with low resistance

C Pure hypovolemia

D Peripheral resistors collapsed in isolation

Question 104 QCS

Blood pressure mainly depends on the product:

A Cardiac output × peripheral vascular resistance

B Tidal volume × respiratory rate

C Preload × vital capacity

D Heart rate × osmolarity

Question 105 QCS

Virchow's triad, which causes venous thrombosis, includes:

A Venous stasis, endothelial injury and hypercoagulability

B Hypertension, hyperglycemia and hyperlipidemia

C Hypoxia, acidosis and fever

D Anemia, leukopenia and thrombocytopenia

Question 106 QCM

What are the determinants of stroke volume?

A Preload

B Afterload

C Contractility (inotropism)

D Lung vital capacity

Question 107 QCM

Among the main types of shock, we distinguish:

A Hypovolemic shock

B Cardiogenic shock

C Distributive shock (septic, anaphylactic)

D Obstructive bronchial respiratory shock

Question 108 QCM

Concerning distributive shock (septic, anaphylactic), which propositions are correct?

A It is accompanied by vasodilation and a fall in peripheral resistance

B There is a capillary leak

C Cardiac output is typically collapsed from the start as in cardiogenic

D Anaphylactic shock is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction

Question 109 TEXT

List the main compensatory mechanisms involved in chronic heart failure.

Question 110 TEXT

Classify shock states according to their mechanism and give an example for each.

Question 111 QCS

Hematosis refers to:

A Blood clotting

B Alveolar-capillary gas exchanges (oxygenation and elimination of CO2)

C Production of red blood cells

D Renal filtration

Question 112 QCS

Hypoxemia corresponds to:

A A decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood

B An increase in blood CO2 only

C Excess tissue oxygen

D An isolated drop in pH

Question 113 QCS

Acute respiratory failure is defined biologically by:

A Hypoxemia (± hypercapnia) on arterial blood gases

B Isolated hyperglycemia

C Isolated hyperkalemia

D An increase in troponins

Question 114 QCS

Acute cardiogenic lung edema results from:

A An increase in pulmonary capillary pressure

B Pure bronchial vasoconstriction

C A decrease in alveolar permeability

D Severe hypovolemia

Question 115 QCS

The asthma attack corresponds physiopathologically to:

A A reversible obstructive ventilatory disorder with bronchial inflammation

B Pleural fluid effusion

C Infectious alveolar condensation

D Irreversible pulmonary fibrosis

Question 116 QCS

Hypercapnia mainly reflects:

A Alveolar hypoventilation

B Hyperventilation

C Polycythemia

D A pure metabolic alkalosis

Question 117 QCM

Among the mechanisms of hypoxemia, we note:

A The shunt effect (ventilation/perfusion mismatch)

B Alveolar hypoventilation

C Alveolo-capillary diffusion disorder

D Isolated increase in cardiac output

Question 118 QCM

Regarding the types of acute respiratory failure, which propositions are correct?

A Hypoxemic AKI (type I) combines hypoxemia without marked hypercapnia

B Hypercapnic AKI (type II) combines hypoxemia and hypercapnia

C Alveolar hypoventilation leads to hypercapnia

D The IRA is still without gaseous repercussions

Question 119 TEXT

List the main pathophysiological mechanisms of hypoxemia.

Question 120 TEXT

Contrast cardiogenic OAP and lesional OAP in terms of their mechanism.

Question 121 QCS

The stages of biochemical analysis are classically divided into phases:

A Pre-analytical, analytical and post-analytical

B Clinical and radiological only

C Random and definitive

D Manual exclusively

Question 122 QCS

The notion of reference values (usual values) in biochemistry corresponds to:

A The range of results observed in a population of healthy subjects

B The maximum value tolerated by a device

C The therapeutic threshold of a drug

D The technical detection limit

Question 123 QCS

The standard lipid profile (exploration of a lipid abnormality) usually includes:

A Total cholesterol, HDL, LDL and triglycerides

B Blood sugar only

C Only transaminases

D Troponin only

Question 124 QCS

Oxidative stress corresponds to:

A An imbalance between production of free radicals and antioxidant defenses

B An isolated excess of antioxidants without effect

C Glucose deficiency

D An increase in triglycerides

Question 125 QCS

The most specific biomarker of myocardial necrosis is:

A Cardiac troponin (Tc)

B CRP

C Serum creatinine

D Amylase

Question 126 QCS

The biochemical analysis of pleural fluid makes it possible to distinguish a transudate from an exudate mainly by the dosage:

A Proteins (and LDH) according to Light’s criteria

B Capillary blood sugar

C Blood hemoglobin

D Troponin

Question 127 QCM

What elements belong to the pre-analytical phase?

A Sampling conditions (fasting, tourniquet)

B Transport and storage of the sample

C Statistical calculation of reference values

D Correct patient identification

Question 128 QCM

Regarding lipoproteins, which propositions are correct?

A LDL cholesterol is atherogenic

B HDL-cholesterol is protective (purifying)

C Chylomicrons transport triglycerides from food sources

D HDL cholesterol is the main atherogenic factor

Question 129 QCM

Which of the biomarkers used in cardiology are accurate?

A Troponin for the diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome

B BNP/NT-proBNP for heart failure

C CK-MB as a marker of myocardial necrosis

D Bilirubin as a marker of infarction

Question 130 TEXT

Describe the three main phases of the biochemical analysis process.

Question 131 TEXT